Kommentar zu Bamidbar 23:8

מה אקב ולא קבה אל HOW SHALL I CURSE WHOM GOD HATH NOT CURSED — Even when they deserved to be cursed, they were not cursed. When their ancestor, Jacob, made mention of their sin — (Genesis 49:6) “For in their anger they slew a man” — he cursed their anger only, as it is said, (Genesis 49:7) “Cursed be their anger”. When their ancestor, Jacob, went to his father with deceit he deserved to be cursed, but what is stated there (Genesis 27:33)? “Yea, he shall be blessed”. In the case of those tribes who had to recite the blessings it is said, (Deuteronomy 27:12) “These shall stand to bless the people”, but in the case of those who had to pronounce the curses it does not state, “And these shall stand to curse the people”, but, “And these shall stand for the curse”, — it does not wish to mention the term “cursing” in direct reference to them (the people) (Midrash Tanchuma, Vayechi 1; Midrash Tanchuma, Balak 12).

מה אקב לא קבה קל, "how can I curse when G'd has not cursed ( first)?" The problem with this verse is that if G'd had indeed cursed Israel why would there be any need for Bileam to do the same? Balak had obviously invited Bileam to curse people whom G'd had not cursed! Besides what did Bileam mean when he added in verse 9 as justification for his curse or otherwise that he had observed the Isaelites "from the the top of rocks?" What did this detail have to do with cursing or failing to curse the people?

'לא זועם ה, did not anger them. We find the verb zoam used similarly in Maleachi 1,4 והעם אשר זעם ה', “the people against whom G’d was angry.”