Tosefta for II Samuel 3:14

וַיִּשְׁלַ֤ח דָּוִד֙ מַלְאָכִ֔ים אֶל־אִֽישׁ־בֹּ֥שֶׁת בֶּן־שָׁא֖וּל לֵאמֹ֑ר תְּנָ֤ה אֶת־אִשְׁתִּי֙ אֶת־מִיכַ֔ל אֲשֶׁר֙ אֵרַ֣שְׂתִּי לִ֔י בְּמֵאָ֖ה עָרְל֥וֹת פְּלִשְׁתִּֽים׃

And David sent messengers to Ish-bosheth Saul’s son, saying: ‘Deliver me my wife Michal, whom I betrothed to me for a hundred foreskins of the Philistines.’

Tosefta Sotah

The students of Rabbi Yosei asked, How could David have married the sister of his wife (i.e., in apparent violation of Torah law, see Lev. 18:18)? He said to them, it was [only] after the death of Merav that he married [Michal]. Rabbi Yehoshua ben Karcha says, [the reason is that] their betrothal was not fully valid, as it is said (2 Sam. 3:14), "[And David sent messengers to Ish-boshet son of Saul, saying,] 'Give me my wife, Michal, for whom I paid the marriage-price [of one hundred Philistine foreskins].'" Just as their betrothal was not fully valid*the implication is that one hundred foreskins are worthless, and thus do not effect a valid kiddushin (see Kidd. 1:1), so too their marriage was not fully valid. [Relatedly,] on one [place] it says (2 Sam. 21:8), "And the five sons of Michal daughter of Saul that she bore to Adriel [son of Barzilai] the Mecholatite," and [elsewhere] it is written (2 Sam. 6:23), "And Michal daughter of Saul had no offspring until the day of her death." How could these two [apparently contradictory] verses remain standing? It was said, until now, they were [considered] the sons of Merav. Merav bore them, but Michal raised them, and [therefore] they were called by her name. As it says (Ruth 4:17, regarding Ruth's son Oved), "And the neighbors gave him a name, saying, 'A son is born to Naomi,'" and it says (Num. 3:1, prior to listing Aaron's descendants), "And these are the generations of Moses, etc."
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