Kapłańska 4:24 Midrasz: Sifra

1) Or, perhaps it (Vayikra 4:24 — "and he shall slaughter … in the place where the burnt-offering is slaughtered") is meant to include (sin-offerings) that are similar to this (the sin-offering of a nassi), viz.: Just as this is characterized by being a sin-offering that is male, fixed, (and not sliding-scale [oleh veyored (see Vayikra 5:6-7)], atoning, coming from the flock, and coming for a known sin — so, I will include all of that kind. What will I include? The idolatry goats, which are a sin-offering that is male, fixed, atoning, coming from the flock, and coming for a known sin. Or, bullocks that are burnt, which are a sin-offering that is male, fixed, atoning, and coming for a known sin — though they do not come from the flock (i.e., this single exception would not bar their inclusion). Or, the festival goats, which are a sin-offering that is male, fixed, atoning, and coming from the flock — though not coming for a known sin. Since they are all (essentially) "equally weighted," let them all be included (as requiring slaughtering in the north).

6) (Vayikra 4:24): ("It is a) sin-offering": All of its services must be intended for a "sin-offering." "It (is a sin-offering"): to exclude (from kashruth) an animal that is not slaughtered as such.

10) "And he slaughter it in the place where the burnt-offering is slaughtered." Where is the burnt-offering slaughtered? In the north. This, too, is slaughtered in the north. But do I derive this from here? Is it not already written (Vayikra 6:18): "In the place where the burnt-offering is slaughtered, there shall the sin-offering be slaughtered, before the L–rd"? Why, then, is this specified here? To make it categorical — that if it were not slaughtered in the north, it is pasul.