Powtórzonego Prawa 16:2 Midrasz: Mekhilta DeRabbi Yishmael, Sifra & Sifrei Devarim

"shall you take": What is the intent of this? (i.e., it seems redundant.) It is written (Devarim 16:2) "And you shall slaughter the Pesach for the L–rd your G–d, sheep and cattle" — sheep for the Pesach (offering) and cattle for the chagigah (the festive offering.) You say this, but perhaps (the meaning is) both for the Pesach? And how would I understand (Exodus 12:5) "an unblemished lamb, a male"? As referring to the Pesach of Egypt, but Pesach for all the generations he could bring either (sheep or cattle). It is, therefore, written "Of the lambs or of the goats shall you take." Why (the redundant) shall you take?" That the Pesach for all the generations be brought only from the sheep or from the goats (but not from the cattle). These are the words of R. Yoshiyah.

R. Eliezer says: Sheep for the Pesach and cattle for the chagigah. You say this, but perhaps both are for the Pesach? And how would I understand "an unblemished lamb, etc."? As referring to the Pesach of Egypt, but for the Pesach of all the generations (I would say that he brings from both. It is, therefore, written (Ibid. 12:24) "And you shall keep this thing as a statute for you and for your children forever." This refers to the Pesach of all the generations. How, then, am I to understand "And you shall slaughter the Pesach to the L–rd your G–d, sheep and cattle"? Sheep for the Pesach and cattle for the chagigah.

R. Akiva says: One verse states "And you shall slaughter the Pesach to the L–rd your G–d, sheep and cattle," and another, "From the sheep and from the goats shall you take." How are these two verses to be reconciled? This is a (hermeneutical) rule, viz. If two verses in the Torah seem to be mutually contradictory, let them remain in their place until a third verse comes to decide between them. It is, therefore, written (Ibid. 12:21) "Draw forth and take unto yourselves sheep for your families and slaughter the Pesach."