撒母耳記下 3:14的托塞夫塔

וַיִּשְׁלַ֤ח דָּוִד֙ מַלְאָכִ֔ים אֶל־אִֽישׁ־בֹּ֥שֶׁת בֶּן־שָׁא֖וּל לֵאמֹ֑ר תְּנָ֤ה אֶת־אִשְׁתִּי֙ אֶת־מִיכַ֔ל אֲשֶׁר֙ אֵרַ֣שְׂתִּי לִ֔י בְּמֵאָ֖ה עָרְל֥וֹת פְּלִשְׁתִּֽים׃

大衛派使者去見掃羅的兒子伊施波設,說:«請把我的妻子米甲還給我,她是我用一百個非利士人的包皮聘定的。»

Tosefta Sotah

The students of Rabbi Yosei asked, How could David have married the sister of his wife (i.e., in apparent violation of Torah law, see Lev. 18:18)? He said to them, it was [only] after the death of Merav that he married [Michal]. Rabbi Yehoshua ben Karcha says, [the reason is that] their betrothal was not fully valid, as it is said (2 Sam. 3:14), "[And David sent messengers to Ish-boshet son of Saul, saying,] 'Give me my wife, Michal, for whom I paid the marriage-price [of one hundred Philistine foreskins].'" Just as their betrothal was not fully valid*the implication is that one hundred foreskins are worthless, and thus do not effect a valid kiddushin (see Kidd. 1:1), so too their marriage was not fully valid. [Relatedly,] on one [place] it says (2 Sam. 21:8), "And the five sons of Michal daughter of Saul that she bore to Adriel [son of Barzilai] the Mecholatite," and [elsewhere] it is written (2 Sam. 6:23), "And Michal daughter of Saul had no offspring until the day of her death." How could these two [apparently contradictory] verses remain standing? It was said, until now, they were [considered] the sons of Merav. Merav bore them, but Michal raised them, and [therefore] they were called by her name. As it says (Ruth 4:17, regarding Ruth's son Oved), "And the neighbors gave him a name, saying, 'A son is born to Naomi,'" and it says (Num. 3:1, prior to listing Aaron's descendants), "And these are the generations of Moses, etc."
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