Midrasch zu Jehoschua 19:50

We are taught (Num. 26) It was divided only by lots. Except Joshua and Caleb, What does this mean? Shall we assume that they did not take any land at all? Is it possible? If, as said above, they took the shares that were not theirs, how much more ought they take their own? It means they did not take by lots, but by the decree of Heaven. Joshua, as it is written (Joshua 19, 50) By the order of the Lord did they give him the city which he had asked — Timnath Serah on the mountains of Ephraim. And Caleb — as it is written (Jud. 1, 20) And they gave Hebron unto Caleb as Moses has spoken. But was not Hebron one of the cities of refuge? Abaye said: "It refers to the suburbs and village surrounding the city, as it is written (Josh. 21) But the field of the city and its villages they gave to Caleb the son of Yephunah for his possession.