Midrasch zu Wajikra 1:15
וְהִקְרִיב֤וֹ הַכֹּהֵן֙ אֶל־הַמִּזְבֵּ֔חַ וּמָלַק֙ אֶת־רֹאשׁ֔וֹ וְהִקְטִ֖יר הַמִּזְבֵּ֑חָה וְנִמְצָ֣ה דָמ֔וֹ עַ֖ל קִ֥יר הַמִּזְבֵּֽחַ׃
Und der Priester bringe es an den Altar und knicke ihm den Kopf ein und lasse es in Dampf aufgehen auf dem Altar, das Blut werde ausgedrückt gegen die Wand des Altars.
Sifra
1) (Vayikra 1:15): "And the Cohein shall bring it near to the altar"): Why "And he shall bring it"? (In context the "it" is superfluous). Because it is written (Vayikra 1:14): "And he shall offer his offering from the turtle-doves or from the young," I might think that he could offer no fewer than two; it is, therefore, written "And he shall bring it near" — even one suffices.
Ask RabbiBookmarkShareCopy
Sifra
2) "And the Cohein shall bring it near … and he shall pinch off (malak) its head" — whence we are taught that melikah is performed by a Cohein. (For we would otherwise reason:) Is it not a kal vachomer (that a non-priest could also perform melikah), viz.: If a sheep, for (whose shechitah) "north" was mandated (see Vayikra 1:11), a Cohein was not mandated — melikah, for which north was not mandated, how much more so should a Cohein not be mandated! It is, therefore, written: "the Cohein … umalak" — melikah is performed only by a Cohein.
Ask RabbiBookmarkShareCopy
Sifra
3) I might think that he should perform melikah with a knife. And it would follow by kal vachomer, viz.: If shechitah, for which a Cohein was not mandated, an instrument (i.e., a knife) was mandated — melikah, for which a Cohein was mandated, should it not follow that an instrument be mandated! It is, therefore written: "the Cohein … umalak" — concerning which R. Akiva says: Now would it enter your mind that a non-priest could offer it on the altar? What, then, is the intent of "the Cohein … umalak"? To teach us that melikah must be performed with the body (i.e., with the fingernail) of the Cohein.
Ask RabbiBookmarkShareCopy