Midrasch zu Wajikra 7:29

1) (Vayikra 7:29) ("Speak to the children of Israel, saying: He who presents the sacrifice of his peace-offerings to the L–rd shall bring his offering to the L–rd from the sacrifice of his peace-offerings. (Vayikra 7:30) His hands shall bring the fire-offerings of the L–rd. The fat of the breast shall he (a Cohein) bring it. The breast, to wave it, as a wave-offering before the L–rd.") The children of Israel wave; non-Jews (who offer vows and gifts as the Jews do) do not wave. Now which measure is greater? That of semichah (the placing of the hands on the animal's head) or the measure of tenufah (waving)? The measure of semichah is greater than the measure of tenufah. For semichah obtains with all partners (to the offering), but not tenufah. If I exclude them from semichah, the greater measure (viz. Vayikra 1:2), should I not exclude them from tenufah, the lesser measure! (so that the exclusion verse for tenufah would seem to be superfluous). Perceived thus, semichah is (indeed) the greater measure, and tenufah, the lesser. But perceived otherwise tenufah is the greater measure and semichah, the lesser. For tenufah obtains both with things that have a spirit of life (i.e., animals) and with things that do not have a spirit of life, (e.g., first-fruits, the two breads, etc.), with the living (peace-offerings) and with the slaughtered, whereas semichah obtains only with things that have a spirit of life, and with the living alone. Tenufah obtains both with individual offerings and communal offerings, whereas semichah obtains only with communal offerings alone. If I exclude them from semichah, the lesser, would I (without the verse) exclude them from tenufah, the greater? So that because there obtains with semichah what does not obtain with tenufah, and with tenufah, what does not obtain with semichah, it must be written "Speak to the children of Israel, etc." The children of Israel perform semichah and not the gentiles; the children of Israel perform tenufah and not the gentiles.

2) ("the children (lit., the sons) of Israel") The sons of Israel wave; the daughters of Israel do not wave. R. Yossi said: If we find that Scripture did not distinguish between the offerings of gentiles and the offerings of women for semichah (that they do not obtain with both), let us not distinguish between the offerings of gentiles and the offerings of women for tenufah (that they do not obtain with both) (i.e., Why do we need a verse to exclude women from tenufah?) (This is countered:) Why is it that Scripture did not distinguish between the offerings of gentiles and the offerings of women for semichah? Because semichah obtains only with the owners (of the offerings, and both cannot enter the azarah.) (Should we, therefore, not distinguish between the offerings of gentiles and those of women, when tenufah is performed by the Cohein (and say that the Cohein should not perform tenufah for gentiles, but he should perform it for women!) (Therefore, to negate this,) it must be written "the sons of Israel" — the sons of Israel wave, but the daughters of Israel do not wave.

3) This tells me only of the sons of Israel. Whence do I derive (for inclusion in tenufah) proselytes and freed slaves? From (Vayikra 1:19) "He who presents" (connoting in context all who are bound by all the mitzvoth of Israel). Variantly, "he who presents" is the Cohein. "His hands shall bring the fire-offerings of the L–rd" (Vayikra 1:30); this includes the hands of the owner. How is this to be effected? The Cohein places (his hands) under the owner's hands (and waves).