Midrash for Numbers 9:12
לֹֽא־יַשְׁאִ֤ירוּ מִמֶּ֙נּוּ֙ עַד־בֹּ֔קֶר וְעֶ֖צֶם לֹ֣א יִשְׁבְּרוּ־ב֑וֹ כְּכָל־חֻקַּ֥ת הַפֶּ֖סַח יַעֲשׂ֥וּ אֹתֽוֹ׃
they shall leave none of it unto the morning, nor break a bone thereof; according to all the statute of the passover they shall keep it.
Sifrei Bamidbar
(Bamidbar 9:12) "shall they offer it": I might think that Pesach Sheni obtains both with an individual and with the congregation; it is, therefore, written (Ibid. 6) "And there were men" (i.e., individuals). Pesach Sheni obtains with individuals and not with the congregation. R. Nathan said: This (derivation) is not needed. It is already written (Ibid. 13) "And the man who is clean, etc.": Pesach Sheni obtains with the individual and not with the congregation. "and who failed to offer the Pesach": "who failed" connotes one who could, but did not. And the sages estimated this (i.e., "one who could") as pertaining to anyone who at the time of the slaughtering of the Paschal lamb was at a distance from Modi'im (fifteen miles from Jerusalem) and within, along the entire circumference "that soul shall be cut off": "cutting off" connotes a cessation. "that soul": (who sinned) deliberately. These are the words of R. Akiva. "from its people": But its people will remain at peace. "shall be cut off": This refers to the first Pesach. "For the sacrifice of the L-rd he did not offer in its appointed time. His sin shall he bear": This refers to Pesach Sheni. He incurs the penalty of kareth ("cutting off") for (transgression) of both the first Pesach and of Pesach Sheni. These are the words of Rebbi. R. Nathan says "For the sacrifice of the L-rd he did not offer in its appointed time." This refers to the first Pesach. He is liable for (kareth) for (violation of) the first Pesach, but not for the second. "in its appointed time": What is the intent of this? To teach that Pesach Sheni overrides the Sabbath. — But perhaps (the intent is that) just as the first Pesach overrides both the Sabbath and (congregational) tumah, so, Pesach Sheni overrides both the Sabbath and (individual) tumah! Would you say that? Its entire reason for being is his being tamei (on the first Pesach). Shall he then come offer it in tumah (on Pesach Sheni)? "His sin shall he bear, that man.": This tells me only of a man. Whence do I derive (the same for) a woman? From (Ibid.) "then that soul shall be cut off from its people" — to include a woman. If so, why is it written "man"? A man, and not a minor.
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