Comentario sobre Números 9:4

וידבר משה וגו׳ AND MOSES SPAKE [TO THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL THAT THEY SHOULD KEEP THE PASSOVER] — Why is this stated at all? Has it not already been said, (Leviticus 23:44) “And Moses declared [unto the children of Israel] the appointed festivals of the Lord”? But the reason is: when he heard on Sinai the section dealing with the festivals he told it to them then and he used to exhort them again about the festivals at the time when they had to be observed (lit., at the time of action) (Sifrei Bamidbar 66).

Of God’s holidays. However, our Rabbis do not ask why Hashem repeated the command of the Pesach-offering here, although He had already commanded it in Parshas Emor (Vayikra 23). In order that one should not say that they were exempt while in the desert, since the Torah linked it with entering the Land, therefore the Torah repeats itself and teaches it here. However, the statement of Moshe to Yisroel does not say to offer the Pesach-offering in this month, only to offer the Pesach-offering. This implies that he only commanded them the law of the Pesach-offering and thus the Rabbis ask “What does the Torah teach?” (Re’m) It appears to me that the Rabbis were answering the following question: Why did the Torah have to write “Moshe spoke…” at all, it should have merely said “the Bnei Yisroel offered the Pesach-offering…”? Logically, since Hashem commanded him to speak to them, Moshe certainly told them Hashem’s command. For in the beginning of the passage the Torah writes (8:2) “Speak to Aharon and say to him…,” and afterwards it is written “Aharon did so…” But we do not see in the Torah that Moshe told Aharon Hashem’s command. Rather it is logical that he told him the command, given that afterwards it writes “Aharon did so…” Similarly the Torah writes “Hashem spoke to Moshe, take the Levites…” (8:5) but we do not find that Moshe told Yisroel Hashem’s command. Rather the Torah relies upon what is written afterwards “Moshe and Aharon and all the congregation of Yisroel did…” (8:20). Similarly, from the passage “There were men who were impure, having had [contact with] a corpse…” (9:6), we infer that Hashem told him [Moshe] the laws of the Pesach Sheni, but we do not find that Moshe told the laws to them [the people]. Rather it is logical that he related the laws to them. If so, why does the Torah state “Moshe spoke…” when it should have relied on the verse [written afterwards] “they offered the Pesach-offering”? One cannot answer that he had not yet told them the laws of the Pesach-offering, and only he was relating the laws to them, and this is why it is written “Moshe said…,” for it is already written “Moshe spoke of God’s holidays…” (Vayikra 23:44). Therefore, the Rabbis teach as they do, “Evidently when he heard…” This is what seems to me.