Midrash sobre Daniel 5:8

Mar Zutra (according to others Mar Ukba), said: "Originally the Torah was given to Israel in Hebrew characters and in the Hebrew language; then it was given again to Israel, in Ezra's time, in Assyrian characters and in the Aramaic language; finally the Assyrian characters and the Hebrew language were selected for Israel, and the Hebrew characters and the Aramaic language were left to the Hedyotim (ordinary class)." Who are meant by Hedyotim? R. Chisda said: "The Samaritans." What is meant by Hebrew characters? R. Chisda said: "The Libunah characters." We are taught in a Baraitha: R. Jose says: "Ezra was worthy that the Torah should be given through him, had not Moses preceded him." Concerning Moses it says (Ex. 19, 3) And Moses went up unto God. And concerning Ezra it says (Ezra 7, 6) This Ezra went up. Just as the term Aliya (went up) used here [concerning Moses] refers to receiving the Torah, so also does the term Aliya, used there [in connection with Ezra] refer to the Torah. Concerning Moses it is said — (Deut. 4, 14) And me the Lord commanded at that time to teach you statutes and ordinances. And concerning Ezra it says (Ezra 7, 10) For Ezra had directed his heart to inquire unto the law of the Lord and to do it, and to teach in Israel statutes and ordinances. Although the Torah was not given through him, its characters were nevertheless changed through him, as it is said (Fol. 22) (Ib. 4, 7) And the writing of the letter was written in Aramaic, and interpreted in Aramaic. And it is also written (Dan. 5, 8) They were not able to read the writing, nor to make its interpretation. Hence it was a new character that the Aramaic people could not read. (Deut. 17, 18) He shall write for himself (Mishnah) a copy of this Law. This signifies a change in the character of the writing in the future. And why are they called Assyrian? We are taught in another Baraitha: Rabbi says: "In the Asshurith character the Torah was given to Israel in the very beginning, but after they had sinned it was forgotten by them; and after they had repented, it was returned to them, as it is said (Zech. 9, 12) Return to the stronghold, ye prisoners of hope; even to-day do I declare that I will render double unto thee. And why is it named Asshurith? Because it is praiseworthy in character." R. Simon b. Elazar, however, said in the name of R. Eliezer b. Prata, quoting R. Elazar the Modai, that the characters were not changed at all, as it is said (Esther 8, 9) And to the Jews according to their writing, and according to their language, i.e. Just as their language was not changed, so also was their character not changed. But if so, then what is the meaning of "He shall write (Mishnah) a copy of this Law, [which signifies a change in the future]? This refers to the two copies of the Holy Scrolls which a king has to write; one of which is kept in his treasury and another with which he goes out and comes in. The one with which he goes out and comes in should be in a miniature form attached to his arm, as it is said (Ps. 16, 8) I have always set the Lord before me. But he who maintains that the character of the writing was not changed at all, what does he infer from the passage just cited? He uses it for that which was said by R. Chana b. Bizna in the name of R. Simon the pious: "He who prays should always imagine that the Shechinah is opposite him, for it is said, I have always set the Lord before me.

mishneh": This tells me only of mishneh Torah ("the repetition of the Torah," i.e., the book of Devarim). Whence do I derive (that the mitzvah applies also) to the rest of the Torah? From (Ibid. 19) "to heed all the words of this Torah." If so, why is it written "the mishneh of this Torah"? Because it (i.e., the script) is destined to change (viz. Ezra 4:7 and Daniel 5:8).