Midrash sobre Números 5:30

9) We derive "ors" accompanied by an oath (as in our case) from "ors" accompanied by an oath (as in the case of a pledge), and the "ors" of a murderer are no refutation, their not being accompanied by an oath. — This is refuted by the "ors" of sotah (Bamidbar 5:14: "or there had passed over him a spirit of rancor" (Bamidbar 5:30) "or a man if there pass over him, etc."), which are "ors" accompanied by an oath but do not involve money claims.

(Bamidbar 5:30) "Or a man over whom there shall pass a spirit of rancor": What is the intent of this? (i.e., it is already written, viz. 5:14). — From "and he shall have forewarned his wife," (I might think that) this (i.e., forewarning) is optional, or that just as so long as he had not forewarned her, this (making her drink) is optional, then here (5:30), too, making her drink is optional; it is, therefore, written "Or a man over whom there shall pass a spirit of rancor and he warn his wife, then he shall stand the woman before the L-rd, and the Cohein shall do to her all of this law" — It is obligatory, and not optional. "and the Cohein shall do to her all of this law (31) and the man will be clean of sin.": If he did so, he will be clean of sin; if not, he will not be clean of sin. "and the man will be clean of sin": He should not say (if she drinks and dies) "Woe unto me! I have killed a daughter of Israel, Woe unto me! I have desecrated a daughter of Israel, Woe unto me! I have cohabited with a defiled one." This is the intent of "and he will be clean." Shimon b. Azzai says: Scripture here speaks of a woman who is clean (i.e., who has not been defiled); but since she has brought herself to these things (by secreting herself), she, too, shall not escape (some form of) punishment. This is the intent of "and the man will be free of sin, and that woman will bear her sin." Rebbi says: Scripture comes to teach you that it is the end of this woman (one who was defiled, even if a certain merit may suspend her death) to die of that death — "her belly will swell and her thigh will fall, and the woman will be a curse in the midst of her people." Variantly: Why is it written "and the man will be clean of sin"? (To teach that) "when the man is clean of sin, that woman will bear her sin" — as opposed to (Hoshea 4:14) "I shall not punish your daughters when they commit harlotry, nor your brides, when they fornicate. For they (themselves) betake themselves with the whores and sacrifice with the harlots, and a people that does not understand will fall!" He said to them: If you yourselves pursue harlotry, the waters, too, will not prove your wives. This is the intent of "and the man will be clean of sin" — Of that sin itself!