Midrash sur Le Lévitique 4:32

1) (Vayikra 4:32): ("And if a lamb he shall bring as his offering for a sin-offering, a female without blemish shall he bring it.") What is the intent of (the redundant) "he shall bring"? Whence is it derived that if one sets aside his sin-offering and it is lost, and he sets aside a different one in its stead, and then the first one is found, and both are standing before him — whence is it derived that he may offer whichever he likes? From: "he shall bring" - "he shall bring." I might think that he may bring both; it is, therefore, written: "he shall bring it" — he brings (only) one and not two.

2) I might think that he may not bring both for two sins, but that he may bring both for one sin; it is, therefore, written: "he shall bring it" — he brings (only) one and not two.

5) (Vayikra 5:5): "a female" — not a tumtum (of unknown sex) or hermaphrodite. "flock" — anything that can be subsumed in "flock," even one that is mute, imbecilic, or dwarfish. "of the flock" — not a pilgess (a thirteen month sheep, see Chapter 10:2). "a lamb or a goat-kid, for a sin-offering": What does this come to teach us? If that if he did not find a lamb, he may bring a goat-kid, does this not follow a fortiori, viz.: If for a sin-offering (a lamb) that is brought for all of the mitzvoth, a bird may not be substituted but a goat-kid may be substituted (viz. Vayikra 4:32) — this offering, for which a bird may be substituted (viz. Vayikra 5:7), a goat-kid may not be substituted? (Why, then, is a verse needed to tell us this?)