Tafsiran yang Mengutip untuk Ester 1:3

בִּשְׁנַ֤ת שָׁלוֹשׁ֙ לְמָלְכ֔וֹ עָשָׂ֣ה מִשְׁתֶּ֔ה לְכָל־שָׂרָ֖יו וַעֲבָדָ֑יו חֵ֣יל ׀ פָּרַ֣ס וּמָדַ֗י הַֽפַּרְתְּמִ֛ים וְשָׂרֵ֥י הַמְּדִינ֖וֹת לְפָנָֽיו׃

Pada tahun ketiga pemerintahannya, ia mengadakan perjamuan bagi semua pembesar dan pegawainya; pasukan Persia dan Madai, para bangsawan, dan para pembesar provinsi-provinsi hadir di hadapannya.

Masat Moshe

.It is important to note that generally the word VAYEHI refers to the person mentioned directly afterwards. For example Amrafel wanted to kill Abraham, the Judges in the time of Ruth were the reason for the famine in the land, Achaz was the one who wanted to take control over Shuls and houses of Learning. Why then do we attribute the trouble to Haman and NOT to Achashveirosh. 2. Why write "he is Achashveirosh" surely we know who he is, because he is described in just a few words as being the one who ruled from India to Kush. The way it is written would imply that there was another Achashveirosh who didn't rule! 3. Why do we care about the number of his provinces? 4. The verse tells us "in those days" is useful in that it gives us a period in which to relate . Why then does the beginning of the book start "it was in the days of Achashveirosh"? It is not useful in that it does not allow us to see him in context. 5. The words "It was in the days of Achashveirosh" (V1) seem to want to tell us what happened in his days ,and that would seem to relate to the feast that he made (v.2). Why then write again the words "in those days (v.2)? It is as if the Megila has cut off the idea stemming from the first verse and bringing something else. Why then write the words "in those days"(v.2) again? 6.Why should the Megilla explain only later in verse 3 that it was in his third year that the king made a feast? Why not write it immediately in the second verse "in his third year when the King was sitting on his throne in Shushan, he made a feast. We would immediately know what "those days" refer to. 7. What was the reason for this feast? Our sages of blessed memory have said that it was at this time that he had completed his throne, or the days in which he had annulled the building of the Temple in Jerusalem. Why do the sages not follow the simple explanation brought down in the verse - that he made a feast for his generals? 8.
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Ibn Ezra

MENE (מְנֵא): [Signifies that] everything that is counted (יְסֻפַּר - y'suppar) [or] numbered (יֵחָשֵׁב - yechashev). Furthermore, the word UPHARSIN (וּפַרְסִין) has two [meanings implied by the singular Peres]: The first PERES (פְּרֵס) relates to breaking/dividing (פְּרִיסַת - p'risat), [signifying] the breaking/division of his kingdom and its cutting off (כְּרִיתוּתָם - k'ritutam). And the second PERES (פֶּרֶס) relates to Persia (פָּרַס - Paras), from [the common phrase like in Daniel 6:9, Daniel 6:13, Daniel 6:16; Esther 1:3, etc.] “Media and Persia” (מָדַי וּפָרַס - Madai uFaras). Therefore, he [Daniel] said [in the interpretation, Daniel 5:28]: “and it is given to the Medes and Persians” (וִיהִיבַת לְמָדַי וּפָרָס - viyhivath l'Madai uFaras).
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Rabbeinu Bahya

Midrash Tehillim chapter 10 states that G’d’s reaction to the brothers “calmly” sitting down to eat as if nothing had happened was: “Your children will be sold as a result of a meal to be consumed at Shushan,” as we know from Esther 1,3 :”in the third year of the king’s reign, etc.” Haman came and took the Israelites who had felt emancipated away from the feast the king had prepared and at which the Jews had participated. The decree to wipe out the Jews was followed by the King and Haman sitting down to drink. (Esther 3,15)
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