Tafsiran yang Mengutip untuk Keluaran 2:12

וַיִּ֤פֶן כֹּה֙ וָכֹ֔ה וַיַּ֖רְא כִּ֣י אֵ֣ין אִ֑ישׁ וַיַּךְ֙ אֶת־הַמִּצְרִ֔י וַֽיִּטְמְנֵ֖הוּ בַּחֽוֹל׃

Ia menoleh ke sana kemari, dan ketika dilihatnya tidak ada orang, dibunuhnya orang Mesir itu, lalu disembunyikannya di dalam pasir.

Rabbeinu Bahya

Another meaning of the words זה ספר תולדות אדםmay be that these words are a direct reference to שת seeing he is mentioned by name in this paragraph. Inasmuch as the two first sons of Adam having been disappointments, one being killed, the other becoming a murderer, it is this son who truly represented the descendants of the first pair of human beings The very fact that the Torah had already enumerated a list of Kayin’s descendants makes this statement doubly important. Kayin’s descendants were not regarded as the תולדות אדם, at best they were regarded as תולדות קין, Kayin’s descendants. Actually, Kayin’s descendants could be perceived as partially Adam’s and partially the serpent’s, viz. Samael’s, Satan’s. (compare what we wrote on 3,15 as well as what the author wrote on Exodus 2,12). These descendants were Chanoch, Iyrad, and Lemech. Others bore names which trace them to angels such as Mechuyael, Metushael. The latter were what are called later in our portion (6,2) בני האלוקים, “the sons of G’d,” whereas the former are referred to here as בנות האדם, “daughters of man.” Concerning these descendants of Kayin the Torah says (6,2) “when the sons of G’d saw that the daughters of man were good, etc.” These “sons of G’d” were not children of Adam. Concerning this phenomenon our sages in Bereshit Rabbah 24,6 have said: “this is the book of the descendants of Adam, i.e. the ones which have been listed by the Torah up until this point were not true descendants of Adam.” What then is the meaning of the verse which appears to attribute some of the descendants of Kayin to a divine origin? They were called thus as they were descended from Chavah who had mated with כח אל נכר, with the life-giving potential of an alien deity. (the serpent, i.e. the potential of Satan having had intercourse with her.)
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Kessef Mishneh

A gentile who gave a Jew a blow etc. There (Sanhedrin 54b) [it says]: 'Rabbi Ḥanina says: A gentile who struck a Jew is liable to receive the death penalty, as it is stated (Exodus 2:12): “And he turned this way and that way" etc.' Our teacher holds that even though he is liable to death in hands of Heaven, he is not executed. [We can bring] proof for this from the back-and-forth in "Eilu Hein Hagolin" (Makkot 9a) as to whether a ger toshav (resident alien) who [unintentionally] killed a Jew is exiled or executed. Surely it should debate about one who damaged a Jew! Rather, it is certain that even though he is liable to receive the death penalty, he is not executed, and the verse "And he turned this way and that way" is only an asmachta.
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Chizkuni

בתוך בני ישראל, according to Rashi, who quotes Torat Kohanim, these words mean that he had converted to Judaism. [Why he should, seeing that his mother was Jewish, I fail to understand. Ed.] If you were to ask that we read in Exodus, Rashi explained on the words: וירא כי אין איש, that Moses had made sure that no one had seen him killing the Egyptian (Exodus 2,12), that these words mean that Moses foresaw in a prophetic vision that no potential descendant of that Egyptian would ever convert to Judaism, we would have to assume that at that moment this man’s mother was already pregnant with him. What Moses had seen prophetically was that in the future no one would ever descend from this man who had the potential to convert to Judaism. Hence by killing him, he had not committed any ethical crime, especially seeing that the man had murdered a Jew. Furthermore, there is nothing in our scriptures that asks us to look for extenuating circumstances before executing a blasphemer. At this point, our author raises the question about the relevancy of conversion, seeing that any child born by a Jewish mother, be the father a slave or a pagan, is automatically Jewish from birth. The only answer to this question could be that this automatic Judaism came into force only after the Torah had been given at Mount Sinai. Seeing that this man had been sired at least about 60 years prior to the giving of the Torah, he had not qualified as a Jew automatically, but of course could have converted at any time. [Remember he had been sired before Moses even escaped to Midian. Ed.] Due to these considerations this blasphemer had been a convert. A different approach to the scenario involved here: the plain meaning of the words: בתוך בני ישראל, the blasphemer had been an Egyptian, due to his father having been an Egyptian; going back to the times when the Israelites had still been enslaved. After the Exodus, he converted and therefore ever since he was viewed as a Jew due to his mother having been a Jewess. He felt that seeing he had no father who also having been a Jew belonged to one of the tribes, he was entitled to belong at least to his mother’s tribe.
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Rashi

מי שמך לאיש WHO MADE THEE A PERSONAGE (lit., a man), and you are yet only a boy (Midrash Tanchuma, Shemot 10).
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Rashi

הלהרגני אתה אמר lit. WILT THOU SPEAK IN ORDER TO SLAY ME — From this we may learn that he had killed him by the mere utterance of the “Shem Hamephorash” (Midrash Tanchuma, Shemot 10; Exodus Rabbah 1:30).
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Rashi

ויירא משה AND MOSES FEARED — Explain it in its literal sense: he was afraid of Pharaoh. A Midrashic explanation is: he felt distressed because he saw that there were wicked men among the Israelites — common informers. He said: Since this is so (מעתה), perhaps they are not worthy to be delivered from bondage (Midrash Tanchuma, Shemot 10).
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Rashi

אכן נדע הדבר SURELY THE THING IS KNOWN — Explain it in its literal sense: the fact that I have killed the Egyptian is known. A Midrashic explanation is: now there is known to me that matter about which I have been puzzled — how has Israel sinned more than all the seventy nations, that they should be oppressed by this crushing servitude? But now I see that they deserve this (Exodus Rabbah 1:30).
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