Commento su Esodo 30:33

ואשר יתן ממנו WHOSOEVER PUTTETH ANY OF IT — of that made by Moses (Keritot 5a)

OR WHOSOEVER PUTTETH ANY OF IT UPON A ZAR'… — “When it is not required [for anointing a person] into the [high-] priesthood or kingship.” This is Rashi’s language. But Rabbi Abraham ibn Ezra retorted that zar in this connection means anyone who is not of the seed of Aaron and his sons mentioned,¹³⁷For since He mentioned first (in Verse 30): And thou shalt anoint Aaron and his sons, it follows that the expression, or whosoever putteth any of it upon a ‘zar’ means that anyone who is not of the seed of Aaron is a zar (a stranger). So why did Rashi say that the oil may also be used for the anointing of a king? just like the verse, and the ‘zar’ that draweth nigh shall be put to death,¹³⁸Numbers 1:51. “Shall be put to death — by the hand of Heaven” (Rashi). which means any stranger not included in those mentioned. Similarly: There shall no ‘zar’ eat of the holy thing,¹³⁹Leviticus 22:10. [which means anyone not of the seed of Aaron]; to the end that no ‘zar’ that is not of the seed of Aaron, draw near…¹⁴⁰Numbers 17:5. It is for this reason that [Ibn Ezra] thought that the anointing of Solomon¹⁴¹I Kings 1:39. which was done by Zadok [the priest] taking the horn of oil out of the Tent,¹⁴¹I Kings 1:39. — which refers to the Oil of Anointment [which Moses prepared] — was a special, temporary decree by authority of prophecy [permitting the oil to be used upon one who was not of the seed of Aaron]. But this is not the opinion of our Rabbis.¹⁴²For according to the Talmud (Kerithoth 5 b) every High Priest who would be appointed was to be anointed with this oil, as were also some of the kings. Generally an heir to the throne of Israel did not have to be anointed, though in order to avoid disputes over the royal succession [as was the case with Solomon] anointing was resorted to. See further on this topic “The Commandments,” Vol. I, p. 45.
And I say that [the opinion of our Rabbis is borne out by the language of the verse]. For Scripture states, This shall be a holy anointing oil unto Me throughout your generations,¹⁴³Verse 31. and it would have been correct if it were to say instead, “This shall be a holy anointing oil for Aaron and his sons throughout their generations,” just as He said in the case of the garments, And the holy garments of Aaron shall be for his sons after him;¹⁴⁴Above, 29:29. or that He say, “And thou shalt anoint Aaron and his sons, and sanctify them, that they may minister unto Me, and it shall be a statute forever to them throughout their generations.” But now that He mentioned only them, [And Aaron and his sons thou shalt anoint] and then continued by saying that it should not be put upon any zar, it could mean that [the prohibition extends] to all people [even High Priests after Aaron] except those mentioned specifically [i.e., Aaron and his sons] ! Similarly He said, Upon the flesh of man shall it not be poured,¹⁴⁵Verse 32. [which might be taken to mean upon anyone’s flesh — even that of the High Priests after Aaron], and yet Scripture explicitly states, And the anointed priest that shall be in his [Aaron’s] stead, from among his sons!¹⁴⁶Leviticus 6:15. This shows that it is impossible to say that the High Priests after Aaron should not be anointed with this oil. And if so, the question appears why did Scripture use here language which might indicate the opposite, as explained above? But such is the explanation etc. But such is the explanation: He commanded that at the moment Aaron and his sons should be anointed with this oil, and then He continued, This shall be a holy anointing oil unto Me,¹⁴³Verse 31. — to anoint with it My holy anointed ones whom I will choose — throughout your generations,¹⁴³Verse 31. and it shall not be put upon a zar (stranger) whom I have not designated unto Me. It is for this reason that kings and High Priests were anointed with this oil, for both of them are “the anointed ones of G-d.” Thus it is written, I have found David My servant; with My holy oil have I anointed him¹⁴⁷Psalms 89:21. — meaning, with the oil which is the holy anointing oil unto Me. And the meaning of the verse, Upon the flesh of man shall it not be poured,¹⁴⁵Verse 32. is as an admonition to all men [even to Aaron and his sons after they have been anointed with it], since He did not say, “upon the flesh of a zar shall it not be poured.” Thus the purport thereof is that he [Moses] is to pour of the oil upon Aaron’s head in order to anoint him, and then he is to anoint also his sons, but he is not to pour this oil upon any man, even upon the anointed priests, merely as people apply good oils to their bodies in order to scent themselves with hands soaked in oil, after bathing, something like it is said, Wash thyself and anoint thee;¹⁴⁸Ruth 3:3. Then I washed thee with water… and I anointed thee with oil.¹⁴⁹Ezekiel 16:9. This is the plain meaning of the verse and its intention. And so did our Rabbis say:¹⁵⁰Kerithoth 7a. “How do we know that if the High Priest took some of the oil of anointment which was upon his head and put it upon his stomach, that he is liable [to punishment]? Scripture therefore says, Upon the flesh of man shall it not be poured.”¹⁴⁵Verse 32.

ואשר יותן ממנו, from the oil of anointing prepared by Moses.