Midrash su Geremia 51:64

Similarly, (Jeremiah 7:1) "The word that came to Jeremiah, etc.", (Ibid. 40:4) "And these are the words that the L-rd spoke, etc." Now did Jeremiah prophesy only these? Did he not write the entire book, viz. (Ibid. 51:64) "Until here, the words of Jeremiah"? What, then, is the intent of "And these are the words"? We are hereby taught that they were words of rebuke, viz. (Ibid. 30:5-7) "A sound of terror have we heard, of fear and not peace. Ask now and see if a male has ever given birth. Why, then, do I see that every man puts his hands upon his loins like a woman in childbirth, and all faces turn pale? Woe! For that day is great. There is none like it. It is a time of trouble for Jacob. But from it he will be saved."

But, of the Babylonians, he who spoke of them words of consolation (in the beginning) — (Jeremiah 27:6) "I have given all these lands into the hand of Nevuchadnezzar, king of Bavel, My servant; even the beasts of the field have I given him to serve him" — He reverted to words of retribution — (Ibid. 51:64) "And you shall say: 'Thus shall Bavel sink and it shall not rise because of the evil I am bringing upon her, and she shall grow faint.' Until here the words of Jeremiah." He who (in the beginning) spoke of the Babylonians words of consolation, (in the end) reverted to words of retribution.