Midrash su Levitico 6:11

(Lev. 19:1–2:) THEN THE LORD SPOKE UNTO MOSES, SAYING: SPEAK UNTO THE WHOLE CONGREGATION OF THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL, AND SAY UNTO THEM: YOU SHALL BE HOLY, [BECAUSE I, THE LORD YOUR GOD, AM HOLY]. This text is related (to Is. 5:16): THE LORD OF HOSTS HAS BEEN EXALTED THROUGH JUSTICE, AND THE HOLY GOD HAS BEEN SANCTIFIED THROUGH HOLINESS. When did the Holy One become exalted in his world?¹Tanh., Lev. 7:1. When he brought about judgment and justice among the peoples of the world. It is so stated (in Is. 3:13): THE LORD STANDS UP TO PLEAD A CAUSE, AND RISES TO JUDGE PEOPLES. It also says (in Dan. 7:9): I LOOKED UNTIL THRONES WERE SET IN PLACE < or THROWN DOWN > (remiw).²The Aramaic word can mean both WERE SET IN PLACE and WERE THROWN DOWN. The former meaning better fits the biblical context; but one of the midrashic interpretations given here requires the latter meaning. What is the meaning of THRONES (in the plural)? Were there a lot of thrones, when < there is > that which is written (in Is. 6:1): I SAW THE LORD SEATED UPON A THRONE (in the singular)? What is the meaning of THRONES? R. Jose the Galilean and R. Aqiva differed.³Hag. 14a. One said: THRONES denotes the throne plus its hypopodion⁴The Greek word means “footstool.” {i.e., its footstool}; and the other said: These are thrones that belong to the nations of the world, since the Holy One is going to throw them down, as stated (in Hag. 2:22): THEN I WILL THROW DOWN THE THRONE< S > OF KINGDOMS, AND DESTROY THE KINGDOMS OF THE GENTILES. You know [for yourself] that this is so. "Thrones were set up," is not written here (in Dan. 7:9), but THRONES WERE THROWN DOWN. Thus it is written (in Exod. 15:1 or 21): THE HORSE AND HIS RIDER HE HAS THROWN (rt.: RMH) INTO THE SEA. < Our > masters say: What is the meaning of THRONES? In the age to come the Holy One will sit down, and the angels will place thrones for the great ones of Israel for them to sit down, so that the Holy One will be sitting with them like the president of the court (av bet din). Then they shall judge the peoples of the world, as stated (in Is. 3:14): THE LORD WILL COME IN JUDGMENT ALONG WITH THE ELDERS OF HIS PEOPLE AND THEIR PRINCES.⁵Exod. R. 5:12; see Wisdom 3:8; I Enoch 38:5; 48:9; I Corinthians 6:2. "Against the elders of his people" is not written here, but ALONG WITH THE ELDERS < OF HIS PEOPLE >. < Scripture > is teaching that the Holy One will sit along with the elders and princes of Israel to judge the nations of the world. And which < thrones > are they? These are the thrones of the house of David and the elders of Israel, as stated (in Ps. 122:5): THERE STOOD THE THRONES OF JUDGMENT, THRONES OF THE HOUSE OF DAVID. R. Pinhas said in the name of R. Hilqiyah the Southerner (i.e., from Judah), < who spoke > in the name of R. Reuben: If you say: When thrones stand there for judgment, they are thrones of the house of David. Then what is < the meaning of > (Dan. 7:9): AND THE ANCIENT OF DAYS TOOK HIS SEAT? That he sits among them like the president of the court, and with them he judges the nations. It is therefore written (ibid.): UNTIL THRONES WERE SET IN PLACE. What is the meaning of (ibid., cont.): AND THE HAIR OF HIS HEAD WAS LIKE CLEAN WOOL? When the Holy One cleanses himself from the nations of the world,⁶Cf. the parallel in the traditional Midrash Tanhuma, Lev. 6:11 (Jerusalem: Eshkol, n.d.), which reads: “The Holy One cleanses himself from the worshipers of idols.” he gives them compensation for the easy commandments which they have observed in this world. < He does so > in order to judge them and convict them in the world to come, so that they will have no excuse and have no merit found for them. Thus it is stated (in Is. 14:32): AND WHAT WILL HE ANSWER THE ANGELS OF⁷mal’akhe. In the biblical context, the word should be rendered as “messengers of,” but the midrash interprets the passage eschatologically. A < GIVEN > NATION? THAT THE LORD HAS ESTABLISHED ZION, AND IN IT THERE SHALL THE AFFLICTED OF HIS PEOPLE TAKE REFUGE. Then he immediately renders the judgment against them. At that time the Holy One becomes exalted in his world, as stated (in Is. 5:16): THE LORD OF HOSTS IS EXALTED IN JUDGMENT, [AND THE HOLY GOD IS SANCTIFIED IN JUSTICE]. What is the meaning of (ibid.): THE LORD OF HOSTS IS EXALTED IN JUDGMENT? That he is sanctified in his world in justice, because he teaches concerning Israel what is stated (in Is. 63:1): I SPEAK IN JUSTICE. The Holy One said to Israel: I am sanctified in you, as stated (in Is. 29:23): FOR WHEN < JACOB > SEES HIS CHILDREN IN HIS MIDST, THE WORK OF MY HANDS, THEY SHALL SANCTIFY MY NAME; YES, THEY SHALL SANCTIFY THE HOLY ONE OF JACOB…. And so it says (in Is. 49:3): ISRAEL IN WHOM I WILL BE GLORIFIED. So you are sanctified in me, and I am sanctified in you, as stated (in Lev. 11:44; cf. 19:2): [SO YOU SHALL SANCTIFY YOURSELVES] AND BE HOLY, BECAUSE I AM HOLY.

5) (Vayikra 6:11) ("Every male among the children of Aaron shall eat it. It is a statute forever for your generations of the fire-offerings of the L–rd. Whatever touches them shall become sanctified.") "Every male": to include those who are blemished. To what end? If for eating, this is already written (viz. Vayikra 21:22). If so, why is "Every male" written? To include those who are blemished for apportionment. "shall eat it": if it is fit, but not if it has become unfit. "It is a statute forever." — for the eternal house (the Temple). "For your generations" — to span the generations (for the second Temple and beyond). "of the fire-offerings of the L–rd": They may not eat it (even if it had been apportioned earlier) until after the fire-offering.

6) "Every male": to include all those with blemishes. Why need this be stated? If (to tell us that they are fit) for eating, this has already been stated (Vayikra 21:22), and if for apportionment, (that he receive a portion as one of the fit ones), this has already been stated (Vayikra 6:11, see Chapter 3:5 here). If so, why is "Every male" written? For (if it were not written) I might think that only those with passing blemishes (were permitted). Whence would I derive (for inclusion) even those with permanent blemishes? It is, therefore, written: "Every male among the Cohanim may eat." "it": one that is consecrated and not one that is unfit. "it is holy of holies": Why is this mentioned? I might think that (the vessels of) a sin-offering alone require scouring and rinsing. Whence do I derive the same for all offerings? From "holy of holies." I might think that the same holds true for terumah. It is, therefore, written ("may eat) it" — excluding terumah. These are the words of R. Yehudah. R. Shimon says: (Vessels of) higher order offerings require scouring and rinsing. (Those of) lower order offerings do not.