Midrash su Numeri 9:2

"And they shall slaughter it": whether on a weekday or on a Sabbath. And how would I satisfy (Exodus 31:14) "Its (Sabbath's) profaners shall be put to death"? With other labors, aside from the slaughtering of the Pesach. But perhaps (the meaning is) even with the slaughtering of the Pesach. And how would I satisfy "And they shall slaughter it"? On other days, aside from Sabbath. It is, therefore, written (Numbers 9:2) "And the children of Israel shall offer the Pesach in its appointed time" — even on the Sabbath. These are the words of R. Yoshiyah. R. Yonathan said to him: But we still have not heard! R. Yoshiyah: It is written (Ibid. 28:2) "Command the children of Israel and say to them: My offering, My bread … shall you observe to offer to Me in its appointed time, etc." (What is the purpose of this?) If to teach that the (offering of the) tamid overrides the Sabbath, is it not already written (Ibid. 9) "And on the Sabbath day, two lambs of the first year, etc." What, then, is the import of "in its appointed time"? It is "extra" for purposes of formulating a gezeirah shavah (an identity), viz.: It is written here "in its appointed time," and elsewhere, (Numbers 9:2) "in its appointed time." Just as the tamid overrides the Sabbath, so, here (the Pesach) overrides the Sabbath. (Exodus 12:6) "And the entire assembly of the congregation of Israel shall slaughter it": Whence do you derive that if Israel has only one Pesach, it suffices for all of them? From "And the entire congregation, etc."

(Bamidbar 9:2) "And the children of Israel shall offer the Pesach in its appointed time": Why is this stated? (i.e., Isn't it obvious?) From (Shemot 12:6) "and the whole congregation of Israel shall slaughter it (the Paschal lamb)," I might think, either on a weekday or on Sabbath (as the case may be). And how would I satisfy (Ibid. 31:14) "Its (Sabbath's) desecrators shall be put to death"? With other labors, other than slaughtering the Paschal lamb. — Or, even with slaughtering the Paschal lamb. And how would I satisfy "and they shall slaughter it"? (If it falls out) on other days, other than Sabbath. It is, therefore, written "And the children of Israel shall offer the Pesach in its appointed time" (— even on the Sabbath). These are the words of R. Yoshiyah. R. Yonathan (to R. Yoshiyah): This is not sufficient (for the derivation [i.e., "in its appointed time" may mean if it does not fall out on a Sabbath.]) R. Yoshiyah (to R. Yonathan): Rather, it is written (Bamidbar 28:2) "Command the children of Israel and say to them … to offer (the tamid) offering to Me in its appointed time." If (the intent of this is) to teach that the tamid offering overrides Sabbath, this is not needed; for it is already written (Ibid. 9) "And on the Sabbath day, (there are to be sacrificed) two lambs of the first year … (10) the burnt-offering of the Sabbath in its Sabbath in addition to the daily burnt-offering, etc." What, then, is the intent (of "in its appointed time")? It is "extra," to signal the formulation of an identity, viz.: it is written here "in its appointed time," and elsewhere (re the Paschal lamb) "in its appointed time." Just as "its appointed time" here overrides Sabbath, so, "its appointed time" there overrides Sabbath. "On the fourteenth day of this month, towards evening shall you offer it, in its appointed time.": What is the intent of this? Is it not already written "The children of Israel shall offer it in its appointed time"? Why, again, "in its appointed time"? Scripture hereby comes to teach us that just as the first Pesach (as opposed to Pesach Sheni) overrides the Sabbath, so it overrides (communal) uncleanliness. For (without this verse,) it would follow otherwise, viz.: If (the slaughtering of) the red heifer, which does not override the Sabbath overrides (communal) uncleanliness, the first Pesach, which overrides the Sabbath, how much more so should it override uncleanliness? — This is refuted by the second Pesach, which even though it overrides the Sabbath, does not override uncleanliness. And this would indicate of the first Pesach that even though it overrides the Sabbath, it does not override uncleanliness. It is, therefore, written "in its appointed time," to teach concerning the first Pesach that just as it overrides the Sabbath it overrides uncleanliness. (Bamidbar, Ibid.) "According to all of its statutes": These are the mitzvoth (directly) pertaining to its body, viz. (Shemot 12:5) "an unblemished lamb, a male, of the first year." "its ordinances": These are the mitzvoth attendant upon its body, viz. (Devarim 16:3) "Seven days shall you eat matzoth 'upon' it." "according to all its ordinances": to include mitzvoth not attendant upon its body — the eating of matzoh for seven days and the burning of chametz.

(Bamidbar, Ibid.) "My offering": the blood. "My bread": the devoted portions. You say this, but perhaps "My offering, My bread" is the blood? It is, therefore, written (of the devoted portions) (Vayikra 3:16) "And the Cohein shall smoke them upon the altar, the bread of a fire-offering for a sweet savor." It is not the second formulation that is to be posited, but the first — "my offering": the blood; "My bread": the devoted portions. "for My fires": the fistfuls (of the meal-offerings) and the frankincense. "My sweet savor": the libations. "shall you observe": that it be brought only from the Temple funds. "shall you observe": that Cohanim, Levites, and Israelites stand over them. "shall you observe": It is written here "shall you observe," and elsewhere (in respect to the Paschal lamb, Shemot 12:6) "shall you observe." Just as there, it had to be inspected four days prior to slaughtering, so, here. "shall you observe to offer to Me in its appointed time": What is the intent of this? From (Shemot 12:6) "and they shall slaughter it (the Paschal lamb)," I might think both on a weekday and on the Sabbath. And how would I satisfy (Ibid. 31:14) "Its (the Sabbath's) desecrators shall be put to death"? In the instance of other labors, besides the slaughtering of the Pesach. Or, even including the slaughtering of the Paschal lamb. And how would I satisfy "and they shall slaughter it"? On all the other days, besides the Sabbath. Or, even on the Sabbath? It is, therefore, written (Bamidbar 9:2) "And the children of Israel shall offer the Pesach in its appointed time" — even on the Sabbath. These are the words of R. Yoshiyah. R. Yonathan said: In this sense (i.e., the above) we have not yet heard it used. But, why is it written (Ibid. 28:2) "Command the children of Israel, etc." If to teach about the tamid (the daily burnt-offering) that it overrides the Sabbath, this is not necessary. For it is already written (Ibid. 9) "And on the Sabbath day, two lambs of the first year." What, then, is the intent of (2) "in its appointed time"? It is "extra" towards the formulation of an identity (gezeirah shavah), viz.: It is written here "in its appointed time," and elsewhere, (in respect to the Paschal lamb) "in its appointed time." Just as in this instance (of the daily burnt-offering), Sabbath is overridden, so, in that instance.