Musar su Esodo 6:1
וַיֹּ֤אמֶר יְהוָה֙ אֶל־מֹשֶׁ֔ה עַתָּ֣ה תִרְאֶ֔ה אֲשֶׁ֥ר אֶֽעֱשֶׂ֖ה לְפַרְעֹ֑ה כִּ֣י בְיָ֤ד חֲזָקָה֙ יְשַׁלְּחֵ֔ם וּבְיָ֣ד חֲזָקָ֔ה יְגָרְשֵׁ֖ם מֵאַרְצֽוֹ׃ (ס)
Il Signore disse a Mosè: Ora vedrai ciò che farò a Faraone; poiché (costretto) colla forza li lascerà andare, anzi a viva forza gli scaccerà dal suo paese.
Shenei Luchot HaBerit
Yalkut Shimoni item 177 on Exodus 6,12, where we have another instance in which Moses uses the word לאמור when speaking to G–d, says that there are altogether four such instances. Rabbi Eleazar ben Azaryah claims that Moses demanded that G–d reply to him, i.e. “לאמור, whether He would redeem the Children of Israel or not. G–d responded in Exodus 6,1: "Now you will see what I shall do to Pharaoh, etc." A similar incident occurred when the Torah reported Moses as using this expression in Numbers 12,13 when he wanted an immediate answer whether G–d was going to heal Miriam or not. There, too, G–d is reported as responding to this outcry in verse 14, indicating that Miriam would be healed after a week. We also have such an instance in Numbers 27,15 where Moses wanted a reply from G–d to his request that He appoint a suitable leader in his stead. G–d responded in verse 18 that Joshua would be the new leader of the people. Lastly, the Yakut quotes the verse in our portion where Moses supposedly demanded an immediate response to his request to enter ארץ ישראל.
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Shenei Luchot HaBerit
Concerning this Midrash one may ask: Where did Moses take the nerve to speak to G–d in such a fashion? One may, of course, simply point out that the very fact that Moses did not achieve what he asked for because G–d told him עתה תראה, meaning that he would experience only the part of the redemption from Egypt which would occur now, but not the conquest of the Holy Land, proves that his request was not couched in acceptable language. [This editor has another question, i.e. how could the request in Exodus 6,12 be answered in Exodus 6,1?] Similarly, had Moses phrased his question in more acceptable language, Miriam might have been healed immediately instead of after seven days. Again, if Moses had phrased his question concerning a leader for the Jewish people in more acceptable language would he maybe have seen one of his own sons appointed as his successor?
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Shenei Luchot HaBerit
We are dealing with a Divine decree that was issued already prior to this incident, but the execution of which had been delayed pending certain actions by the human beings to whom it was to apply. The decree concerned the coming into being of the kingdom of David and all that this entailed. A single error of Saul sufficed to trigger its execution, whereas on the other hand when David committed several sins, this did not have fatal consequences for his dynasty (compare the discussion in Yuma 22b). What occurred here, was of a similar nature. G–d told Moses already in Exodus 6,1, after the latter had complained that his mission had resulted in additional hardships for the people he had been sent to liberate, עתה תראה, now you will see!" Sanhedrin 111, comments on this that it had already then been decreed that Moses would not lead the Jewish people into the Holy Land, that he would only experience the deliverance of the people from Egypt. A similar decree existed due to the conduct of the people, i.e. that that generation also would not see the Holy Land. This was because they did not deserve all the miracles that would be performed for them at the time of their entering the Holy Land. Had Moses led them then, the miracles he would have performed would have outclassed those performed when Joshua defeated the thirty-one kings, and the people simply would not have deserved such miracles. The Ralbag explains all this in connection with Joshua, 1,2, when G–d told Joshua: "My servant Moses has died, and now arise and cross this river Jordan!"
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