וַיִּשְׁבֹּ֨ת הַמָּ֜ן מִֽמָּחֳרָ֗ת בְּאָכְלָם֙ מֵעֲב֣וּר הָאָ֔רֶץ וְלֹא־הָ֥יָה ע֛וֹד לִבְנֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל מָ֑ן וַיֹּאכְל֗וּ מִתְּבוּאַת֙ אֶ֣רֶץ כְּנַ֔עַן בַּשָּׁנָ֖ה הַהִֽיא׃ (ס)
그 땅 소산을 먹은 다음 날에 만나가 그쳤으니 이스라엘 사람들이 다시는 만나를 얻지 못하였고 그 해에 가나안 땅의 열매를 먹었더라
Tosefta Sotah
As long as Moses was alive, the manna was falling for Israel. Once Moses died, what does it say, but (Josh. 5:12), "And the manna ceased the next day." And it was not that the manna depended on him being alive, but rather even after his death, the manna that they gathered on the day that Moses died, they ate from it, from the 7th of Adar until the 16th of Nissan, thirty-nine days. And they offered up the Omer in Gilgal, as it is said (Ex. 16:35), "And the Children of Israel ate the manna for 40 years, until they came (עד בואם) to settled land." Is it not already written "until they came (עד בואם)"? Why is written (in the same verse), "[they ate manna] until they came (עד בואם) to the border of the land of Canaan"? Rather, it comes to teach that from the manna that they gathered on the day that Moses died, they ate from it from the 7th of Adar until the 16th of Nissan, 39 days. Until they offered up the Omer in Gilgal, the manna did not cease to exist, and [while they still had it] they did not want to eat from the produce of the land of Canaan. Rabbi Elazar ben Azariah told a parable: To what is this matter comparable? To a king of flesh and blood that said to his servant, "Mix me [a cup of wine] in hot water" (see Zev. 82a:5). He said to him, "There is no hot water here." He said to him, "If not, mix it for me in cold water." In order to make it known how wonderful the manna was for Israel, that as long as it descended for Israel they would not eat from the produce of the land of Canaan. The year that Israel went out from Egypt, [starting] on the 16th of Iyar, manna descended for Israel, and on the 7th of Adar it ceased descending, on the same day that Moses died. And on the 16th of Nissan, the manna that they had kept in their hands was finished, as it is said (Josh. 5:12, JPS Tr.), "[The Israelites got no more manna] and that year they ate of the yield of the land of Canaan." Another version: Why does it say (Ex. 16:35), "And the Children of Israel ate the manna for forty years"? Is it not missing forty days (i.e., from the 7th of Adar until the 16th of Nissan)? Rather, that they ate cakes of matzah that they brought out in their hands from Egypt, which were just as good as manna for them.