Midrasz do Wyjścia 34:7

(Fol. 36b) Our Rabbis were taught: How did the High-priest confess? "I have committed iniquities, transgressed, and sinned;" and so says Scripture regarding the scapegoat (Lev. 16, 21) And confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions, and all their sins. And this arrangement is also used by Moses (Ex. 34, 7) Forgiving iniquity and transgression and sin; so says R. Meir. The sages, however, say. Iniquities (Avonoth) refers to intentional transgressions; and so says Scripture (Num. 15, 31) That person shall be cut off, his iniquity (Avono) is upon him; transgressions (P'sha'im) refers to rebellion, and so says Scripture (II Kings 3, 7) The King of Moab hath rebelled (Pasha) against me. There is also another passage (Ib. 8, 22) Then did Libnah revolt in that time; sin (Chata'oth) refers to unintentional wrong (done in ignorance), and so says Scripture (Lev. 4, 2) If any person sin through ignorance (Yekheta). But, according to the sages, how is it possible that after he has confessed the intentional and rebellious sins, he will confess the unintentional? Therefore we must say that he said them in this order: I have sinned, committed iniquities, and transgressed. And so says David (Ps. 106, 6) We have sinned together with our fathers, ive have committed iniquity, we have done wickedly. And so also says Solomon (I Kings 8, 47; II Chr. 6) We have sinned, we have committed iniquity, we have acted wickedly. So also says Daniel (Dan. 9, 5) We have sinned, we have committed iniquity, we have done wickedly, and we have rebelled. If so, then, why did Moses say (Ex. 34, 6) Forgiving iniquity, and transgression, and sin. Moses said thus to the Holy One, praised be He! "Sovereign of the Universe, when the children of Israel will sin before thee, and then repent, consider their conscious sins as mere inadvertant acts."

(Fol. 27b) (Deut. 24, 16) Fathers shall not be put to death for the children..... for his son's sin, etc. For what purpose is this written? If only to teach us the meaning of it taken literally, we know this from the end of the verse — for his own sin shall every man be put to death. It must therefore be interpreted, fathers should not die by the testimony of their children, and children shall not die by the testimony of their fathers. And children, you say, should not die by the sin of their fathers? Is there not a passage (Ex. 34, 7) Visiting the iniquities of the fathers upon the children? That passage refers to children who hold in their hands the deeds of their fathers, (follow their fathers' example), as we are taught (Lev. 26, 39) And also through the iniquities of their fathers shall they pine away with them; i.e., when they hold in their hands the deeds of their fathers. But perhaps this refers even to those who do not follow the example of their fathers? Since the passage reads (Deut. 24, 16) For his own sin shall every man be put to death, it includes even those who follow the deeds of their fathers. And when they do not follow the example of their fathers you say they cannot be punished? Indeed it is written (Lev. 26, 37) And they shall stumble one over another. Infer from tins that all (Israel) are responsible for one another. That deals with a case when they had an opportunity to protest [against the evil] and they did not, [they are therefore responsible].

Said R. Jose b. Chanina: "Four decrees did Moses decree upon Israel, and four prophets came and abolished them. Moses said (Deut. 33, 28) And Israel dwelt in safety, the fountain of Jacob alone. Amos, however, abolished it, as it is said (7, 5) I beseech Thee; How should Jacob stand? For he is small. Then immediately in (Ib. 6) The Lord bethought … this also shall not be. Moses said (Deut. 28, 65) And among these nations shalt thou have no repose. Jeremiah came and abolished it, as it is written (31, 2) Even Israel, when I go to cause him to rest. Moses said (Ex. 34, 7) Visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children. Ezekiel, however, came and abolished it, by saying (18, 4)The soul that sinneth, it shall die. Moses said (Lev. 26, 38) And ye shall perish among the nations. Isaiah came and abolished it by saying (27, 13) And it shall come to pass in that day, that a great horn shall be blown; and they shall come that were lost in the land of Assyria, etc." Rab said: "I am [nevertheless] afraid of the passage, Ye shall be lost among the nations," whereupon R. Papa remarked: "Perhaps this means like a lost article, which is looked after by the owner, as the passage says (Ps. 119, 176) I have gone astray like a lost sheep; seek Thy servant." We must say that he refers to the end of same, The land of your enemies shall consume you. Mar Zutra, and according to others, R. Ashi, opposed this, contending that it may refer to the consummation of pumpkins and cucumbers [which are only eaten partly].