Midrash sobre Êxodo 21:17

Our Rabbis were taught: It is said (Ex. 20, 12) Honor thy father and thy mother, and again it is said (Pr. 3, 9) Honor the Lord with thy wealth; Scripture compares the honor of father and mother unto the honor of Heaven. Again it is said (Lev. 19, 3) Ye shall fear every man, his mother and his father; and again it is said (Deut. 10, 20) The Lord thy God shalt thou fear; Scripture compares the fear of father and mother unto the fear of Heaven. Agam it is said (Ex. 21, 17) And he that curses his father or his mother shall surely he put to death; and it is said (Lev. 24, 15) Whosoever curseth his God shall hear sin. Scripture compares here the blasphemy of father and mother unto that of Heaven. However, as far as beating is concerned the comparison is impossible; and so also should it be according to the logic of law; for these three — Heaven, father and mother — are partner in the child.

2) "He has cursed his father and his mother": What is the intent of this? Because it is written (Shemoth 21:19) "And he who curses his father and his mother shall be put to death," I might think that he is not liable until he curses both of them; it is, therefore, written "He has cursed his father; ("He has cursed) his mother" — either one. A proselyte, then, is liable for (cursing) his mother, but not for (cursing) his father, (there being no "fatherhood" for a proselyte.) These are the words of R. Yossi Haglili. R. Akiva says: "He has cursed his father and his mother": One who is liable for (cursing) his father is liable for (cursing) his mother. One who is not liable for his father is not liable for his mother. R. Akiva concedes that a shtuki (an illegitimate child of unknown fatherhood) is liable for (cursing) his mother even though he is not liable for (cursing) his father.

5) (Vayikra 20:9) "For a man, a man": What is the intent of this? To include a daughter, a tumtum, and a hermaphrodite. "who curses his father and his mother shall be put to death": This tells me only of his father and his mother. Whence do I derive the same for (one who curses) his mother without (cursing) his father, or his father without his mother? From "He has cursed his father and his mother," in any event. These are the words of R. Yoshiyah. R. Yonathan says: ("His father and his mother) implies both together or each by itself unless Scripture explicitly states "together" (as it does in the case of kilaim).