וַיַּ֖עַשׂ מֹשֶׁ֑ה כַּאֲשֶׁ֨ר צִוָּ֧ה יְהוָ֛ה אֹת֖וֹ כֵּ֥ן עָשָֽׂה׃ (ס)
E Moshe fez conforme Hashem lhe ordenara; assim ele fez. {פ}
Ramban
AND THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL DID AS THE ETERNAL COMMANDED MOSES. “This includes the leaning of hands,540Verse 14. casting from a height, and hanging the dead body, as well as the regulation, his body shall not remain all night upon the tree.”541Deuteronomy 21:23. [This is the language of the] Torath Kohanim.542Torath Kohanim, end of Emor. And Rabbi Abraham ibn Ezra wrote that the plain meaning thereof is that from that day onwards they acted in accordance with the law concerning one who wounds [a fellowman or causes him damage, mentioned here above in Verses 17-21]. But it is not a correct [explanation] that this verse be referring to the future. The plain meaning thereof is as follows: “and they stoned him with stones because the children of Israel did according to the commandment which the Eternal commanded Moses.” Such a repetition of expressions is found with respect to all those who keep the commandments of G-d, just as it is said in the section of the Passover,543Exodus 12:28. and as He stated in the section of the census, Thus did the children of Israel; according to all that the Eternal commanded Moses, so did they;544Numbers 1:54. and so also with regards to the rods of the princes: Thus did Moses; as the Eternal commanded him, so did he.545Ibid., 17:26.
The correct interpretation here appears to me to be that since Scripture mentioned first the stoning, it went back afterwards and stated, and the children of Israel did etc., for the meaning of Scripture is to declare that when Moses spoke to the children of Israel they immediately brought forth him that had cursed, and they stoned him; and all the children of Israel did so in order to keep and fulfill [the commandment] as the Eternal commanded Moses, but not out of hatred to the son of the Egyptian who had striven with the Israelite, for [they did it] in order to remove the unworthy one from their midst.
Behar
The correct interpretation here appears to me to be that since Scripture mentioned first the stoning, it went back afterwards and stated, and the children of Israel did etc., for the meaning of Scripture is to declare that when Moses spoke to the children of Israel they immediately brought forth him that had cursed, and they stoned him; and all the children of Israel did so in order to keep and fulfill [the commandment] as the Eternal commanded Moses, but not out of hatred to the son of the Egyptian who had striven with the Israelite, for [they did it] in order to remove the unworthy one from their midst.
Behar
Siftei Chakhamim
Although the matter was difficult for him. For if not so, why is it necessary to say “Moshe did…”? Would one have thought that he would transgress the charge of the Omnipresent? Re’m writes: I do not know why Rashi did not make this comment in Parshas Korach where it is written (Bamidbar 17:26) “Moshe did as Hashem commanded Moshe, so he did.” It is possible that he did not comment there because one may say that he did so happily and for his own benefit, so that Bnei Yisroel would not again come to dispute the elevation of the tribe of Levi. There [the happiness due to] the love over his tribe’s elevation was joined with his performance of this commandment, even though he was also doing the command of Hashem. Consequently there Rashi did not wish to make any comment.
Siftei Chakhamim
That they did not deviate. Otherwise, why does Scripture write, “[Aharon and his sons] fulfilled”? It is obvious! Would a righteous man such as he not do, Heaven forbid, as he was commanded by Hashem? Re’m writes: Similarly, the Sages expounded in the Mechilta, regarding (Shemos 14:2,4): “Speak to the Bnei Yisroel and have them turn back... They did just that.” And in Parshas Acharei Mos, regarding (16:34): “He did as Hashem commanded Moshe,” and in Parshas Bo, regarding (Shemos 12:28): “The Bnei Yisroel went and did...” and in Parshas Beha’aloscha, regarding (Bamidbar 8:22): “Just as Hashem had commanded Moshe.” However, in Parshas Beha’aloscha, regarding (ibid. 9:5): “So they made the Pesach offering ... [so did the Bnei Yisroel do],” the Sages did not expound. Perhaps this is because they relied on what was expounded concerning the [first] Pesach itself in Parshas Bo. It appears to me: The reason the Sages did not expound in Parshas Beha’aloscha, regarding (ibid.): “So they made the Pesach offering...” was because that entire section speaks of the Jewish people’s degradation, as Rashi explains: The entire forty years they were in the wilderness they made only this one Pesach offering, etc. For this reason the Sages did not expound concerning “So they made...” as they did elsewhere. Furthermore, Re’m writes: “However, in Parshas Korach (Bamidbar 17:26) regarding: ‘Moshe did so, [he did just as Hashem had commanded him],’ concerning the matter of the staffs, the Sages did not expound anything, and I do not know why.” It seems to me the answer is because it is not applicable to expound there: To tell you his praise, etc., since Moshe was the messenger of Hashem, and it is presumed that a messenger fulfills his assignment. It is no praise for a messenger when he does the assignment of the one who sent him. However, the Bnei Yisroel, and Aharon and his sons, did according to the words of Moshe. They made no changes from all that he commanded them, and they believed that Moshe was sent [by Hashem]. For this, it is apropos to expound: “To tell you their praise.” So it appears to me.