Шмот 14:15 Комментарий: Rashi, Chizkuni, Ramban & Ibn Ezra

מה תצעק אלי WHEREFORE CRIEST THOU UNTO ME? — there is no mention that he prayed to God concerning this, but this teaches us that Moses stood in prayer. Whereupon the Holy One, blessed be He, said to him, “It is no time now to pray at length, when Israel is placed in trouble”. Another explanation of מה תצעק אלי (taking it in the sense of “Wherefore criest thou? אלי it is to Me — concerns Me”) — upon Me rests this matter and not upon thee. The idea contained in this explanation is similar to what is expressed elsewhere: (Isaiah 45:11) “Concerning My sons and concerning the work of My hands will ye command Me?” (Mekhilta)

?מה תצעק אלי, Why do you cry out to Me?” According to the plain meaning of the text Moses was quite sure that the Israelites would be helped and saved. Had G-d not told him: “I will deal very severely with Pharaoh? (verse 4) The question was addressed to the Israelites through Moses. The Torah is full of examples when G-d speaks to Moses, as representative of the whole Jewish nation. He is taking issue with the fact that the Israelites were complaining instead of displaying a little bit of faith by wading into the sea. G-d tells Moses to command them to get moving. He had already told them that He would fight on their behalf. (verse 14) They should therefore have been certain that G-d would not let the Egyptians defeat them.

AND THE ETERNAL SAID UNTO MOSES: WHEREFORE CRIEST THOU UNTO ME? Rabbi Abraham ibn Ezra commented⁴⁹The difficulty is that there is no mention above of Moses’ praying. Rashi therefore comments that this verse itself — Wherefore criest thou unto Me? — teaches by implication that Moses had been praying. Ibn Ezra’s explanation is first in the text, and Ramban’s interpretation follows it. that Moses corresponds in function to all of Israel who were praying to G-d, as Scripture said, And the children of Israel cried out unto the Eternal.⁵⁰Above, Verse 10. In other words, the name Moses is here equivalent to all Israel. But Ramban questions this explanation of Ibn Ezra: “If so, etc.” But if so, why did G-d say, Wherefore criest thou? When it was indeed proper that they should pray! Perhaps [Ibn Ezra] will say that the sense thereof is: “Why do you let them pray? Speak to them so that they will go forward, for I have already told you, And I will be honored through Pharaoh.”⁵¹Above, Verse 4.
And our Rabbis have said⁵²In the Mechilta on the verse before us. that it was Moses who was crying and praying. This is the correct interpretation [and not, as Ibn Ezra said, that the reference here is to all of Israel]. Moses was at a loss concerning what he was to do. Although G-d had told him, And I will be honored through Pharaoh,⁵¹Above, Verse 4. he did not know how to conduct himself at that moment when he was at the edge of the sea and the enemy was pursuing and overtaking [them]. He therefore prayed that G-d should instruct him in the manner that he should choose.⁵³See Psalms 25:12. This then is the meaning of Wherefore criest thou unto Me? meaning: “You should have asked what to do, and there is no need for you to cry, since I have already informed you, And I will be honored through Pharaoh.”⁵¹Above, Verse 4. Now Scripture did not relate that Moses was crying out to G-d, because he is included among Israel, [of whom it was already written above in Verse 10: And the children of Israel cried out unto the Eternal].