Midrash sa Deuteronomio 15:12: Mekhilta DeRabbi Yishmael, Sifra, Midrash Tanchuma Buber & Mekhilta DeRabbi Shimon Ben Yochai

(Ibid.) "If you buy (lit.,) a servant Hebrew": Is Scripture speaking of a servant who is a Hebrew, or the servant of a Hebrew? And how am I to understand (Leviticus 25:46) "And you shall hold them as an inheritance for your sons after you, etc."? As referring to (a gentile servant) bought from a gentile; but if he were bought from a Jew, (I would say that) he serves six years and goes free on the seventh. It is, therefore, written (Devarim 15:12) "If there be sold to you (by beth-din for his theft) your brother, the Hebrew man or the Hebrew woman, etc." Let it not be written "Hebrew man" or "Hebrew woman," for it is already written "your brother."

For it is written (Ibid. 7) "And if a man sells his daughter as a maidservant, she shall not go out as the (Canaanite) bondsmen go out" — by (loss of) organ prominences, as the Canaanite bondsmen do go out. You say (it means) this; but perhaps (it means that) she should not go out with (six) years (of service) or with Jubilee years, as the (Hebrew) bondsmen do go out. It is, therefore, written (Devarim 15:12) "If your Hebrew brother or sister is sold to you, etc." — whereby we are apprised that she does go out with (six) years (of service). Whence do we derive (the same for) the Jubilee? From (Leviticus 25:42) "For they (i.e., all Hebrews are My servants." In any event, (it has been shown that) it is not the second conclusion (i.e., that she does not go out with years of service and with Jubilee), which is correct, but the first (i.e., that she does not go out with loss of organ prominences).

This tells me only of a Hebrew maidservant. Whence do we derive (the same for) a Hebrew bondsman? It is, therefore, written (Devarim 15:12) "the Hebrew man or the Hebrew woman." The first is likened to one second. Just as the Hebrew woman does not go out with (loss of) organ prominences, so, the Hebrew man (But why is a verse needed for this?)