Midrasch zu Wajikra 19:20
וְ֠אִישׁ כִּֽי־יִשְׁכַּ֨ב אֶת־אִשָּׁ֜ה שִׁכְבַת־זֶ֗רַע וְהִ֤וא שִׁפְחָה֙ נֶחֱרֶ֣פֶת לְאִ֔ישׁ וְהָפְדֵּה֙ לֹ֣א נִפְדָּ֔תָה א֥וֹ חֻפְשָׁ֖ה לֹ֣א נִתַּן־לָ֑הּ בִּקֹּ֧רֶת תִּהְיֶ֛ה לֹ֥א יוּמְת֖וּ כִּי־לֹ֥א חֻפָּֽשָׁה׃
Wenn jemand ein Weib beschläft und sie ist eine Magd, die Sklavin eines Mannes, aber weder losgekauft, noch ist ihr ein Freibrief gegeben worden, so steht die Geißelung darauf, getötet aber werden sie nicht, da sie keine Freie ist.
Sifra
1) (Vayikra 19:20) ("And a man, if he lie with a woman, a lying of seed, and she be a maidservant, bound to a man, and redeemed she has not been redeemed, or freedom not been given to her — there shall be censure; they shall not die, for she was not freed.") "a man": to exclude a minor. I might think that I exclude one older than nine years and one day (even though he might be potent); it is, therefore, written "And a man" (connoting inclusion).
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Sifra
2) "if he lie with a woman": to exclude a minor (less than three years and one day, who is not fit for intercourse). "a lying of seed": to exclude peripheral (unconsummated) intercourse. "and she be a maidservant": I might think that Scripture is speaking of a Canaanite maidservant; it is, therefore, written "and redeemed," (which cannot apply to a Canaanite maidservant). If "and redeemed," I might think that she was entirely redeemed; it is, therefore, written "she was not redeemed." How is this to be understood — "redeemed and not redeemed"? Scripture is speaking of one who is half-maidservant, half-freed woman and betrothed to a Hebrew manservant. These are the words of R. Akiva. R. Yishmael says: Scripture is speaking of a Canaanite maidservant who is betrothed to a Hebrew manservant. If so, how is "redeemed she has not been redeemed" to be understood? Scripture speaks in the language of man. R. Elazar b. Azaryah says: All of the arayoth (forbidden women) have already been stated (to be free women), so that this one, which remains, must be half-maidservant, half-freedwoman, who is betrothed to a Hebrew manservant. Others say: (Scripture is speaking) of a Canaanite maidservant betrothed to a Canaanite manservant.
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Sifra
3) "and redeemed she has not been redeemed": through money or its equivalent. Whence is (the possibility of redemption by) writ (of emancipation) derived? From "or freedom not given to her," and elsewhere (Devarim 24:3): "And he shall write to her a writ of divorce" — Just as there, a writ; here, too, a writ. This tells me only that money effects half- (redemption [viz., "and redeemed she has not been redeemed"]), and that a writ (of emancipation) effects complete (redemption). Whence is it derived that a writ, too, can effect half-redemption? From "and redeemed she has not been redeemed, or freedom not been given to her" — Just as money can effect half- (redemption), so, a writ.
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