Midrash su Levitico 10:17
מַדּ֗וּעַ לֹֽא־אֲכַלְתֶּ֤ם אֶת־הַֽחַטָּאת֙ בִּמְק֣וֹם הַקֹּ֔דֶשׁ כִּ֛י קֹ֥דֶשׁ קָֽדָשִׁ֖ים הִ֑וא וְאֹתָ֣הּ ׀ נָתַ֣ן לָכֶ֗ם לָשֵׂאת֙ אֶת־עֲוֺ֣ן הָעֵדָ֔ה לְכַפֵּ֥ר עֲלֵיהֶ֖ם לִפְנֵ֥י יְהוָֽה׃
'Perché non hai mangiato l'offerta per il peccato al posto del santuario, visto che è santissimo, e ti ha dato per sopportare l'iniquità della congregazione, per espiare loro davanti all'Eterno?
Ein Yaakov (Glick Edition)
(Fol. 31) A scholar said to Raba: "Let us say [concerning the verse (Lev. 10, 17) Hoche'ach Tochi'ach 'rebuke, thou shalt rebuke'] that hoche'ach means rebuke once, and tochiach means twice?" "The first hoche'ach means even a hundred times, and tochi'ach means that not only the master must rebuke his pupil [when seeing him acting wrong], but even the pupil must do so to his master."
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Sifra
4) (Vayikra 10:17) "Why did you not eat the sin-offering in the holy place?": Now did they eat it in an unholy place? Was it not burned? viz. (Vayikra 10:16): "and it was burned!" If so, why did he say "Why did you not eat it, etc."? — He said to them: Perhaps it went outside of the (court) curtains? For a sin-offering that leaves the precincts of the curtains is unfit. This tells me only of this ("a sin-offering") alone. Whence do I derive the same for holy of holies? From (Vayikra 10:17): "for it is holy of holies." Whence is it derived that the eating of offerings (by the Cohanim) is atonement for Israel? From (Vayikra 10:17): "And it has He given to you to forgive the sin of the congregation, to make atonement for them before the L–rd." How so? Cohanim eat and the owners are atoned for.
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