Midrash su Levitico 25:54

1) (Vayikra 25:54) ("And if he not be redeemed with these, then he shall go out on the Yovel year; he and his children with him.") "And if he not be redeemed with these": R. Yossi Haglili says: "with these" (i.e., if he is redeemed by his kin, he goes out) to freedom, and with other men, to servitude (i.e., he serves them for the years he was to serve the gentile). R. Akiva says: "with these" (i.e., if he is redeemed by his kin, he goes out) to servitude, and with other men, to freedom.

2) R. Shimon says: Whence is it derived that theft of a gentile is "theft" (and forbidden)? From (Vayikra 25:48) "After he is sold, (monetary) redemption shall there be for him" — he shall not be seized (from the gentile without payment). I might think that he may fool him (the gentile into letting him go for a token payment); it is, therefore, written (Vayikra 25:50) "And he shall reckon with his buyer" — with exactitude.

3) — But perhaps Scripture is speaking of a gentile that is not subject to you, and what can you do to him (to force him? — and for that reason you must be exact with him, and not because theft of a gentile is permitted). — (This is not so, for) "then he shall go out on the Yovel year, he and his children with him" indicates Scripture to be speaking of a gentile who is subject to you. If Scripture speaks thus of a gentile who is subject to you, how much more so of one who is not subject to you! If Scripture is so stringent with theft of a gentile, how much more so, with theft of a Jew!