Bibbia Ebraica
Bibbia Ebraica

Musar su Genesi 22:15

וַיִּקְרָ֛א מַלְאַ֥ךְ יְהוָ֖ה אֶל־אַבְרָהָ֑ם שֵׁנִ֖ית מִן־הַשָּׁמָֽיִם׃

L’angelo del Signore chiamò un’altra volta Abramo dal cielo.

Shenei Luchot HaBerit

The Midrash continues: G–d called to Moses whereas G–d did not call to Abraham. How are we to understand this in view of Genesis 22,15: ויקרא מלאך ה' אל אברהם; Clearly G–d did call to Abraham. We must answer that it is no disgrace for the king to speak with his innkeeper. When G–d spoke to Moses He did not do as He did when He spoke to Abraham, but the angel first called to Abraham (to tell him G–d was about to speak to him). Rabbi Avin says that G–d said: "I am the caller and it is I who is speaking." We know this from Isaiah 48,15: אני אני דברתי אף קראתיו והביאותיו והצליח דרכו, "I, I have spoken, I called him; I have brought him and make him successful in his mission." Thus far the Midrash.
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Shenei Luchot HaBerit

Let me explain the plain meaning of this section of the Midrash before concentrating on the allusions contained therein. One can ask why does the Midrash raise the problem of G–d also speaking to Adam, Noach and Abraham? Why should this bother us? Our verse in Leviticus did not state that Moses had an exclusive on being called upon by G–d? Furthermore, why did the Midrash quote a verse in which Abraham was addressed by G–d through an angel instead of bringing a verse from an earlier incident (Genesis 22,11) when the angel is specifically mentioned as calling from Heaven? Another difficulty is that the statements seem self-contradictory. First the Midrash says that G–d did not call upon Abraham, whereas immediately afterwards it qualifies the manner in which G–d called upon Abraham! If G–d never called upon Abraham, how can the Midrash qualify the nature of such a call?
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Shenei Luchot HaBerit

We also find that the preamble of קריאה was used prior to the actual message in the case of the angel speaking to Abraham. What special proof of fondness does this expression indicate here in Leviticus where the Torah does not even link this form of address to some form of express compliment to Moses in contradistinction to the compliment paid to Abraham in Genesis 22,15 where the use of the word ויקרא is followed by an acknowledgment of why Abraham qualified for this special fondness G–d displayed for him? In that instance G–d explains that He swore an oath acknowledging Abraham's outstanding act of obedience.
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