א֣וֹ בְאֵיבָ֞ה הִכָּ֤הוּ בְיָדוֹ֙ וַיָּמֹ֔ת מֽוֹת־יוּמַ֥ת הַמַּכֶּ֖ה רֹצֵ֣חַֽ ה֑וּא גֹּאֵ֣ל הַדָּ֗ם יָמִ֛ית אֶת־הָרֹצֵ֖חַ בְּפִגְעוֹ־בֽוֹ׃
원한으로 인하여 손으로 쳐죽이면 그 친 자를 반드시 죽일 것이니 이는 고살하였음이라 피를 보수하는 자가 그 고살자를 만나거든 죽일 것이니라
Yalkut Shimoni
Or if he struck him with enmity, why is it stated "by his hand"? Because it states "or if he struck him with an iron tool" etc., "or with a stone" etc., "or with a wooden tool" etc. I only know that if he killed him with those, he is liable. How do I know that if he choked him, strangled him, or kicked him, he is also liable? It is stated "by his hand" from any manner of killing.