히브리어 성경
히브리어 성경

예레미야 18:10의 미드라쉬

וְעָשָׂ֤ה הרעה [הָרַע֙] בְּעֵינַ֔י לְבִלְתִּ֖י שְׁמֹ֣עַ בְּקוֹלִ֑י וְנִֽחַמְתִּי֙ עַל־הַטּוֹבָ֔ה אֲשֶׁ֥ר אָמַ֖רְתִּי לְהֵיטִ֥יב אוֹתֽוֹ׃ (ס)

만일 그들이 나 보기에 악한 것을 행하여 내 목소리를 청종치 아니하면 내가 그에게 유익케 하리라 한 선에 대하여 뜻을 돌이키리라

Mekhilta d'Rabbi Yishmael

"to the dog shall you throw it": "to the dog" — as to the dog (i.e., anything like a dog.) You say this, but perhaps it is to be taken literally? It is, therefore, written (Ibid. 14:21)"You shall not eat any neveilah, etc." (but you may derive benefit from it). Now does this not follow a fortiori, viz.: If it is permitted to derive benefit from neveilah, which causes "carrying uncleanliness," how much more so, from treifah, which does not cause "carrying uncleanliness!" Why, then, is it written "to the dog shall you throw it"? To teach that a dog is of higher station than a slave, a treifah being relegated to a dog, but only neveilah, to a slave, and to teach that the Holy One Blessed be He does not withhold the reward of any creature, viz.: It is written (Exodus 11:7) "And against all the children of Israel (during the exodus) a dog will not sharpen its tongue." The Holy One Blessed be He says, as it were, "Give it its reward (treifah)" (for holding its tongue.) Now does this not follow a fortiori? If it is so — that He does not withhold "reward" — from animals, how much more so (does He not withhold it) from men! As it is written (Jeremiah 18:10) "… to repay every man according to his ways …" and (Ibid. 12) "the Throne of Glory … (13) the hope of Israel, the L rd!"
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