민수기 30:2의 미드라쉬

(Numb. 30:2–3 [1–2]:) THEN MOSES SPOKE UNTO THE HEADS OF THE TRIBES …: WHEN SOMEONE MAKES A VOW (neder) TO THE LORD, <….> Let our master instruct us: What about konamot (i.e., vows of abstinence) and vows (nedarim)?¹Tanh., Numb. 9:1. Thus have our masters taught (in Ned. 2:1): <IF ONE MAKES> A KONAM (i.e., a vow of absitinence) [THAT HE WILL NOT SLEEP, THAT HE WILL NOT SPEAK, THAT HE WILL NOT WALK; IF HE UTTERS A KONAM TO HIS WIFE THAT HE WILL NOT HAVE MARITAL RELATIONS WITH HER, SUCH A ONE IS LIABLE TO <THE INJUNCTION> (in Numb. 30:3 [2]): HE SHALL NOT BREAK HIS WORD. <IF HE SWEARS> AN OATH (shevu'ah)] THAT HE WILL NOT SLEEP, THAT HE WILL NOT SPEAK, THAT HE WILL NOT WALK, HE IS FORBIDDEN <TO DO SO>.²Cf. Ned. 2:2-5; Ned. 13b, 14b-15a; 20a; yNed. 2:2-5 (37b-6); above, Lev. 1:16; cf. Matthew 5:33-37; 23:16-22; James 5:12. Oaths (shevu'ot) carry more weight than vows (nedarim); and vows, than oaths. How so? <If one makes> a konam not to make a Sukkah, not to take up a Lulab, not to put on phylacteries, in the case of vows (nedarim) it is forbidden to put them on or to make them, even though they are commanded (in Torah); but in the case of oaths (shevu'ot) it is permitted, because one does not swear to transgress against the commandments. The Holy One said to the Israelites: Be circumspect with your vows (nedarim) and do not break them, for all who break vows (nedarim) end up in being faithless in oaths (shevu'ot). Moreover, the one who is faithless in oaths is denying me and will never have forgiveness, as stated (in Exod. 20:7 = Deut. 5:11): <YOU SHALL NOT TAKE THE NAME OF THE LORD YOUR GOD IN VAIN,> FOR THE LORD WILL NOT EXONERATE <ONE WHO TAKES HIS NAME IN VAIN>. It is also written (in Jer. 4:2): AND YOU SHALL SWEAR: AS THE LORD LIVES, <IN TRUTH, IN JUSTICE, AND IN RIGHTOUSNESS>. The Holy One said to the Israelites: Do not think that you have permission to swear in my name even in truth.³Numb. R. 22:1. You are not entitled to swear by my name unless you possess all the following attributes (of Deut. 10:20): THE LORD YOUR GOD YOU SHALL FEAR, [HIM YOU SHALL SERVE, TO HIM YOU SHALL HOLD FAST, AND BY HIM YOU SHALL SWEAR]:

(Numb. 30:2-3) “And Moses said to the heads of the tribes, ‘When someone makes a vow (neder) to the Lord.’” This is related to that which is written (in Jer. 4:2), “And you shall swear, ‘As the Lord lives,’ [in truth, in justice, and in righteousness].” The Holy One, blessed be He, said to Israel, “Do not think that you have permission to swear in My name even in truth. You are not entitled to swear by My name unless you possess all the following attributes (of Deut. 10:20), ‘The Lord your God you shall fear, Him you shall serve, to Him you shall hold fast, [and by Him you shall swear].’” That you should be like those who were called God-fearing, Abraham, Job, and Joseph: Abraham of whom it is written (in Gen. 22:12), “For now I know that you fear [God].” Concerning Job it is written (in Job 1:1), “the man was blameless and upright, one who feared God.” Concerning Joseph it is written (in Gen. 42:18), “for I fear God.” Ergo (in Deut. 10:20), “The Lord your God you shall fear.” (Deut. 10:20, cont.) “Him you shall serve.” [You do so,] if you turn [all] your attention to the Torah, fulfill [its] commandments and have no other work (abodah). It therefore is stated (ibid.), “Him you shall serve (rt.: 'bd).” (Deut. 10:20, cont.) “To Him you shall hold fast.” Can one hold fast to the Divine Presence? Moreover, has it not already been stated (in Deut. 4:24), “For the Lord your God is a consuming fire?” It is simply [being stated with reference to] anyone marrying off his daughter to a scholar who reads [Scripture] and recites [Mishnah], that he engage in commerce¹Gk.: pragmateia. for him and have him benefit from his assets.²Ket. 111b; cf. Sot. 14a. It is with reference to [such a] one that it is stated (in Deut. 10:20), “to him you shall hold fast.”
If you have all these [attributes] you may swear; if not, you are not entitled to swear. There is a story about King Jannai, that he had two thousand towns and they all were destroyed because of a true oath. How so? One man said to his fellow, “It is an oath that I will walk and eat such and such in place x”; and they would walk and fulfill the oath, and [the towns] were [nevertheless] destroyed. [If] this is with someone that swears truthfully, all the more so with one who swears falsely.

(Bamidbar 10:3-4) "And when they (the Cohanim) blow with (both) of them, then all the congregation shall gather unto you, to the door of the tent of meeting. And if they blow with one, there shall gather unto you the chiefs." — But we have not heard to where (the chiefs are to gather). It follows (by induction), viz. "Blowing" is written in respect to the congregation, and "blowing" is written in respect to the chiefs. Just as the first (gathering) is at the door of the tent of meeting, so, the second. I might think that all who are (written) first in Scripture (in this instance, the congregation) are first in the act (of gathering). It is, therefore, written (Bamidbar 30:2) "And Moses spoke (first) to the heads of the tribes of the children of Israel": Since "speaking" is mentioned in the Torah unqualified (as to the order of speaking), and in one instance it is explicitly mentioned that the chiefs take precedence, so I induce that in all instances of "speaking" the chiefs take precedence. R. Yonathan said: (The above derivation is) not needed. For it is already written (Shemot 34:31-32) "And Moses called to them, and there returned to him Aaron and all the chiefs of the congregation and Moses spoke to them. And afterwards all the children of Israel drew near, etc." Since "speaking" is mentioned in the Torah unqualified, and in one instance it is mentioned that the chiefs take precedence, so I induce that in all instances of speaking the chiefs take precedence. What, then, is the intent of "And Moses spoke to the heads of the tribes, etc."? To teach (by juxtaposition with 30:3) that annulment of vows is effected only by experts.

(Bamidbar 30:2) "And Moses spoke to the heads of the tribes": What is the intent of this? From (Ibid. 10:3) "And when they (the Cohanim) blow (tekiah) with them (the shofaroth) then all the congregation shall gather unto you," and (Ibid. 4) "And if they blow (tekiah) with one, there shall gather unto you the chiefs," we do not know where (they are to gather). It is (therefore) written "tekiah" re the congregation, and "tekiah" re the chiefs. Just as the congregation, (Ibid. 3) "to the door of the tent of meeting," so, the chiefs, at the door of the tent of meeting. — But perhaps all that is first in Scripture (i.e., "congregation") is first in act? It is, therefore, written (Ibid. 30:2) "to the heads of the tribes" (and then to the tribes). Since "spoke" is written in the Torah unqualified (as to whom he is speaking first), and in one instance (i.e., this one) it is specified that the chiefs take precedence to the congregation, it is, likewise, assumed in all such instances that the chiefs take precedence to the congregation. R. Yonathan says: This (derivation) is not necessary. It is already written Shemot 34:31-32) "And Moses called to them, and there returned to him all the chiefs of the congregation, and Moses would speak to them. And after that, all the children of Israel would approach and he would command them, etc." Since "speaking" is written in the Torah unqualified (as to whom he is speaking first), and in one instance it is specified that the chiefs take precedence to the congregation, so, this is assumed in all such instances. If so, why need it be written (here) "to the heads of the tribes"? To indicate that the permitting (i.e., absolution) of vows is through experts alone.