Midrash su Levitico 25:9

1) (Vayikra 25:10) ("And you shall make holy the fiftieth year, and you shall call out freedom (dror) in the land to all of its inhabitants. It is a Jubilee year (Yovel); it shall be for you. And you shall return a man to his possession, and a man to his family you shall return.") "And you shall make holy (lit.,) the fiftieth year, year": What is the intent of this (seemingly superfluous) "year"? Because it is written (Vayikra 25:9) "on the tenth of the month," I might think that the year is sanctified from the tenth of the month (Yom Kippur); it is, therefore, written "the fiftieth year, year," whereby we are apprised that it is sanctified from the beginning of the year (Rosh Hashanah). R. Yochanan b. Berokah said: (From Rosh Hashanah until Yom Kippur) bondsmen would neither be bound to their masters nor free (to return) to their homes, nor would fields revert to their (ancestral) owners. But they would eat and drink and rejoice with their crowns on their heads until Yom Kippur arrived. When Yom Kippur arrived, they (beth-din) would blow the shofar — whereupon fields would revert to their owners and bondsmen would be free (to return) to their homes.

3) (Vayikra 25:9) ("And you shall cause to pass a shofar of teruah in the seventh month on the tenth day of the month. On the day of atonement shall you cause to pass a shofar through all of your land.") "And you shall cause to pass": And whence is it derived that a shofar is required? From: "And you shall cause to pass a shofar." This tells me only of Yovel. Whence do I derive (the same for) Rosh Hashanah? From "And you shall cause to pass a shofar of teruah in the seventh month on the tenth day of the month. On the day of atonement." Let it not be stated "in the seventh month" (i.e., everyone knows that Yom Kippur is in the seventh month). Why is it stated? (To teach that) the teruah of the seventh month is like this. Just as this is with a shofar, so, the teruah of Rosh Hashanah, (which also falls in the seventh month) is like this (i.e., with a shofar).

4) And whence is it derived that there is a plain blast (i.e., a single uninterrupted blast [tekiah]) before it (the teruah ["broken" blasts])? From "And you shall cause to pass (connoting a single "passing") a shofar of teruah." And whence is it derived that there is a plain blast after it? From (the continuation of the verse) "shall you cause to pass a shofar." This tells me only of Yovel. Whence do I derive (the same for) Rosh Hashanah? From "and you shall cause to pass a shofar of teruah in the seventh month on the tenth day of the month. On the day of atonement." Let it not be stated in the seventh month. Why is it stated? (To teach that) the teruah of the seventh month is like this. Just as this teruah is preceded by a plain blast and followed by a plain blast, so, the teruah of Rosh Hashanah is preceded by a plain blast and followed by a plain blast.