Musar su Deuteronomio 29:28

And know this — that we are obligated that all our deeds, public or private, be dedicated to God's Holy Name, may He be Exalted, and the whole purpose of service to God should be to attain His will and approval alone and not the approval of men, so as to gather praise and honor for one's deeds. But a person should do all for the sake of God who looks to the heart as it is written: "I the Lord search the mind and examine the heart" (Jer. 17:10), and it is said: "The secret things are known to the Lord our God" (Deut. 29:28).

“You shall surely reprimand your countryman and not bear sin because of him.” (Leviticus 19:17). We were warned with this not to incur sin from the sin of our fellow, in our preventing ourselves from rebuking them. And if one man sins when his sin is completely revealed and they did not rebuke him with a rod of reprimands, the whole congregation is punished. And it is accordingly written (Joshua 22:20), “When Achan son of Zerah violated the proscription, anger struck the whole community of Israel; he was not the only one who perished for that sin.” And it is stated (Deuteronomy 29:28), “but with overt [acts], it is for us and our children forever.“ And even the nations of the world said, (Jonah 1:7) “Let us cast lots and find out on whose account this misfortune has come upon us” - and certainly with Israel, who are responsible for one another.

Another difficulty in the instructions in 16,21, to separate themselves from Korach, etc, is Moses' comment: "one man has sinned and You are going to be angry at the whole congregation?" According to Rashi G–d changed His mind and agreed with Moses (16,22). Are we to assume that Moses was smarter than G–d? Some commentators have explained appropriately that originally Moses had misunderstood G–d's intentions, and that this is why he posed the question of "האיש אחד יחטא" G–d had meant that they should separate only from the community of Korach, whereas Moses had thought that G–d had meant for Moses and Aaron to separate themselves from the entire people. This answer is not satisfactory, since we know that G–d knows what goes on in our minds. Why then did He allow Moses to make such an error instead of expressing Himself in a manner Moses would understand correctly? When two human beings argue with one another, it is perfectly normal to say that one misunderstood the other, and that this is the reason they argued, but surely G–d knew how Moses would react to His comments?