Musar zu Dewarim 33:29

Why does the Torah use the expression זרח when referring to Samael, whereas it uses the expression הופיע when referring to Rahav? G–d took the "light" [metaphor for the sword he was blessed with Ed.] which Samael divested himself of and used it as a legal instrument to kill with. This is alluded to in Deut.33,29: ואשר חרב גאותך, "and your (Israel's) sword is triumphant!" The blessing Moses bestows on the Jewish people in that verse is, that though traditionally the sword is not Israel's weapon- Israel will be triumphant with the sword. The other blessing, the one that Rahav waived in order not to have to accept the Torah, G–d used only sparingly, only enough to ensure the continuity of the Jewish people through an adequate birthrate. This is why the Torah used the expression מופיע מהר פארן and זרח מהר פארן. Since G–d had taken from the blessings of these two nations, the Torah describes G–d offering the Torah to all the other nations as אתה מרבבות קודש, "He came from places where He offered the Holy Torah to the various guardian angels of all the other nations, i.e. tens of thousands of people." G–d received a similar response in each and every case. G–d took away gifts previously bestowed on these various nations and instead bestowed them, or most of them, on Israel.